Less than 10%? Definitely -- more like less than 1%. From all reasonable players and most unreasonable ones, the double of any opening suit bid, below thew slam level anyway, is for takeout.

The double is bad -- 3NT is the right bid.

After the double, 4H is the correct advance.

I think most common is to play X as takeout through 4H. Over 4S, one can bid 4N for takeout. There are problems with this as well, of course.

For IMPs, BBO.

Hand One: Negative Double

Partner deals and opens 1 with

AQ
T7
AT7532
AKT

RHO bids 2.

I have:

65
AKJ65
8
QJ954

and employ a Negative Double.

LHO passes. Partner bids 2NT. RHO passes and I ponder...He is showing a flat hand without 3 spades and no preference for his own suit. I think of 3NT but decide to play it safe and pass. It is passed out.

Was my negative double appropriate or was a bid of 3 better?

What was my bid in response to partner's 2NT?




Hand Two: A Penalty Double

A different partner.

RHO is dealer and passes.

I have:

Q2
KQ76
T973
K84

and I pass.

LHO passes.

Partner opens 1. RHO bids 2. I bid 3. LHO passes. Partner passes. RHO bids 3.

I figure myself for two hearts winners, partner has winners in diamonds and all the opponents' points seem to lie on my right so I figure my K is good and we will pick up a trick somewhere. Moreover, if he had had 3 he would have bid it not have been pushed to it. I double
- for penalties.

LHO opponent bids 3NT. Partner doubles. It is passed out.

How good/bad is my double and the reasoning behind it?

There is no likelihood of it being confused for takeout is there?

Hand 1:

Under the circumstances your hand constitutes a game force. Also, a negative double will usually (but not always) mean 4 hearts, not 5. Negative doubles are for when no other bid describes your hand; here 3 does a good job, so bid that.

Having gone the negative double route you should make a further effort over 2NT. I would bid 3C. The main concern with 3NT is whether spades are double stopped. Since they are, partner can bid 3NT. If partner's hand was bad, he could bail out in 3H, which ought to play reasonably well if partner has a doubleton. Raising clubs might be a possiblility also since there could be a huge undisclosed fit. Partner's hand might be:

Ax
xx
AKxxx
Axxx

Which is better in 5C rather than 3NT.

Hand 2: This double is definitely for penalties because a suit fit has already been agreed, so it can't be takeout. It's a clearcut double as well.

I would bid 2NT over 2H though. The double stop in hearts is more important for partner to know about than the diamond support. While the hand is at the bottom end of 2NT hands, we're a passed hand so partner can't expect us to be all that strong. Also, the 2H bid suggests that the KQ are well positioned.

Finished 12th/5th/2nd in a/b/c good for 5.61 gold. We actually played against one team that played a double of my 3c opener was penalty. Well actually only the nondoubler alerted it as penalty. The doubler meant it for takeout. That was good for +670. They also played strong 2s. First time I have ever played against a pair that played an old school system like that.

One real fun hand

Dad
AJTxxx
Q8

Jxxxx

Me
Kxxx
JT9xxxxx
x


Bidding
RHO Me LHO Dad
1C (strong) 3H 4D 4H
6D 6H X P
P P

Lead was a diamond which was ruffed. When I lead back another heart, RHO, who is a Gold Life Master and one of the top players at the club, decided I likely had 9 hearts from the bidding and since LHO didn't lead a heart. So he played the ace from Ax. That was good for +1210. The other table was allowed to play 6D for +920. Always fun to make a doubled slam with 12 HCP, even if it was misplayed .

Hand one: Bid 3H: you're strong enough, and if you don't bid them now the hearts are often getting lost despite that being our strain. On the actual hand, partner's 2NT was a serious underbid; your passing 2NT was a moderate underbid.

Hand two: delicious opportunity, and of course you have enough for the penalty double, but you should have bid 2NT instead of doubling the first time.

May I give a big thank you to everyone who gives criticism to my posts and helps me become a better bridge player.

It is humbling.

For IMPs, BBO.

Partner plays SAYC.

Hand One:

I am dealer and have:

A763
Q843
K9
863

and I pass. LHO passes.

Partner bids 1. RHO passes. I bid 1. LHO doubles. Partner bids 2. RHO passes. I bid 2. LHO passes. Partner bids 2NT. RHO passes.

It comes to me, I think of bidding 3 to instigate Stayman [looking at it now it would have confused the hell out of him as he could legitimately think I am signing off in clubs] but I think it superfluous as I have shown my hearts and he did not show spades. I then think I should pass and let it play in 2NT as partner has placed contract. Then I think of all the times 2NT makes +2. So I bid 3NT.

Had partner placed us in 2NT? How good a bid is 3NT?




Hand Two:

LHO is dealer and passes. Partner bids 2. RHO passes. I have:

7
AQT72
AQJ8
A94

I have 17HCP! Assuming partner has a minimum of 6HCP (yes, I know I should have assumed a minimum of 5HCP for SAYC - assuming 6 HCP is a hangover from Acol), we have 23 HCP. I note I have first round controls in all suits but spades and hopefully partner has that. I think of bidding 3NT. With one more spade I happily bid 4. I then think it does not matter that I only hold one spade in my hand. The trouble is I am so inexperienced at bridge that these hands have not come up regularly enough for me to know what to do. Not knowing what to bid. I bid 4!

What could I have bid? What should I have bid?

Yeesh.

1 - (P) - 1 - (X)
2 - (P) - 2- (P)
2N - (P) - ??

Let's break this down. Partner has shown 5+ diamonds and 4+ clubs (think about other distributions; he would have opened 1N with 15-17 or rebid 1N with 11-14.)

By NOT bidding 1S over X, partner has denied 4 spades. Your 2S bid, then, seems to show an inability to bid NT and should strongly suggest 5 hearts. Partner bids 2N showing a minimum hand with a spade stopper.

At this point, 3C is NOT stayman. It should be a strong hand with club support (else, why did you bid 2S instead of 3C to begin with?)

Sounds to me like partner's about 2-2-5-4 with a 12 count, and you guys have no business in 3N. Pass and hope it makes. Incidentally, I would have passed 2C. I think you've shown the equivalent of about 12 HCP on this auction with your 2S bid, and with your 3N bid, about 14+.

Colors are important here. Partner should have a sounder range if you are vulnerable than if you're nonvulnerable.

The trouble is not just how many HCP partner has. It's how your hands fit together and how many tricks you'll take. You could have serious trouble in NT on a club lead, for instance. Many people would bid (a forcing) 2N with your hand. The standard would be for partner to bid an outside A or K. Here, partner would bid 3D. Now, with partner having the DK, you can count 4 diamonds, 1 heart, and 1 club. On a heart lead, you'll have a 7th, but that's optimistic. I'm guessing partner's hand is something like KQxxxx / x / Kxx / xxx.

With partner denying the CK, I'm not even sure I want to be in game. I guess If I do, I'm gonna hope for the best and bid 4S. I think 3N is down on a club lead.

With your actual hands, it certainly looks like 3N is beat on a club lead. As is (edit: in 4), you just need to take 4 tricks in spades, which is 67% according to suitplay, so I guess this is a pretty good game.

I'll dissent and say that I like the negative double. I have a really good hand, but there's no guarantee of a fit.

I also would bid 3 after 2NT. My hand works best in a suit contract, and 3 shows this.

I just wanted to chime in and agree that I hate 2 here.

I would take it as fsf, but if you meant it as a natural bid, why? You know LHO has 4 spades, and you know partner has less than 4 spades. Why would you ever want to play in spades here?

We have no fit in spades, and no game prospects. 2 or 2 will likely be our best contract.

You have 9 HCP and no known fit with partner. Limit your hand.

I have little to add re Al's latest hands (Wyman said it already), +vuroth's 2411, except that partner may actually have more more clubs than diamonds on hand 1: some players will open 1D with shapes like 3=1=4=5 and insufficient strength for a reverse. (I hate this practice, but it happens). Passing 2C is very clear.

On the 2S opening, I definitely like looking for the feature if that's available; finding it, I bid 4S even though it shouldn't be cold. I do not consider 3NT, at least not seriously, because his suit may look like, well, like it does, and it will take an extra entry to set them up and then get there. (Nonvul, with an aggressive partner, I pass 2S.)

I have a semi-regular online tournament partner, and we play the 1 opening with any 5-4 minor distribution or better, assuming we don't have the strength to reverse. It works very well for us.

For IMPs, BBO.

Partner is competent and plays SAYC.

Hand One: Partner's 3NT Response
W-R (Us-Them)

I am dealer and open 1NT with:

Q94
AKJ74
752
AQ

LHO passes.

Partner bids 3NT with:

JT6
T
AKQ43
9842

It is passed out.

How good a bid is partner's 3NT with a singleton heart?


LHO leads 3 I go low from dummy and put up the A after RHO plays the K. I cross to dummy's A and play out all five diamonds from there. I now have 6 tricks. I lead out dummy's T but overtake it in hand with the K is this a clear mistake in hindsight as LHO has already dumped two hearts (just as I have) and RHO most likely as Q. I should have overtook with J. I cash A and Q. I lead out the 9 and LHO puts up the A and then plays K, J and 7 taking the last four tricks. I think my mistake was due to just wanting to nail the contract. As Watson wrote in his meisterwerk, "the contract is the thing" but here there was no risk as even if LHO has the Q and overtakes the J he can only cash the top two spades and then I win the remaining four with an overtrick. What can I say, the heat of battle is fog shrouded.




Hand Two: My Take-Out Double Response
R-R

LHO deals and opens 1. Partner doubles. RHO passes. I have:

------
KQT975
T
K98762

I put partner on 14pts and 4441 shape. I have not encountered this situation before and toy with either 2 or 3. I decide 3 is right as 2 stinks of cowardice.

LHO passes. Partner bids 4. It is passed out.

What was my bid?




Hand Three: I Leave It In 3
R-W

Partner deals and opens 1. RHO passes. I bid 1NT with:

4
Q65
KT864
J764

LHO bids 2. Partner bids 3. RHO passes.

I have defined my hand with my first bid. I have 4 clubs and if partner is bidding them then 3 is make-able and I feel happy to leave it there.

LHO passes.

Was I correct to pass Partner's 3 rebid?




Hand Four: Who Messed Up Here?
R-R

I am dealer and pass with:

KJ2
T87432
A543
------

LHO passes. Partner bids 1. RHO passes. I bid 1. LHO passes. Partner bids 1. RHO passes. I bid 2. LHO passes. Partner bids 3. RHO passes.

This is the end of the road. Either we are in 3 or I show preference for spades and we are in 3. I bid 3.

LHO passes. Partner bids 3NT. It is passed out.

Partner has:

T954
A5
QJ
AQ975

What contract should we have been in?




Hand Five: More Than Happy In 3NT, Yes?
R-W

LHO deals and passes. Partner bids 1. RHO passes. I bid 2 with:

----
KQ42
QJ832
KQT5

LHO passes. Partner bids 2. RHO passes.

We have game between us in terms of HCP. Now that Partner has rebid spades I put him on six and I am happy to bid 3NT.

Anyone bidding anything other than 3NT?

Hand 3:

YOu limited your hand by responding 1NT. Partner bid 3 and you should pass there.

al,

stick me on your friend list on bbo, jaytee64 is my handle. then we can discuss the brilliance of henderson's relish and play bridge at the same time

WTF is Henderson's relish?

Is that a UK thing, or a new bidding convention to count total spades in the combined 4 hands?

It is something incredibly local to where Al lives and where I used to live.

You want to play? I am a click away from BBO.

not now, but pm me your handle, i'm on there a lot uk time

edit - ok, got that, would have direct replied but you have pm replies blocked or something like that

Re the A763 Q843 K9 863 hand, and the subject of how to open hands with both minor suits:

On the posted hand, vuroth is certainly right that we need to limit our hand - it's a shame 1NT is insufficient! - but after 1-1-2, put me down for a 2 rebid.

We can argue until blue in the face about whether we'd rather be in a 5-2 or a 4-3 fit, but 2 has two big things going for it that pass doesn't: if partner is 1-3-5-4 he now has a chance to bid 2, and a few of his strong 3-1-5-4s might now still bid 2NT.

As for what to open with 4 diamonds and 5 clubs... I regard 1 by agreement as dangerous, and 1 without prior discussion as close to unforgiveable. It pretty much guarantees that partner will always pick the wrong minor. (Disclaimer: I rebid 1NT as opener on a lot of hands that the very old-fashioned would rebid 2 of a minor - for instance KJx x AJxx(x) Axxx(x) after 1m-1. Some years ago I played a Polish club variant seriously... and one of the things I miss most about that system was having a 1D opening that promised a 5-card suit or a 4441 hand. I didn't really mind opening a 4-3-4-2 hand with a nebulous club at all.)

Al: I may be in a minority here, but for me it would be easier if you did one hand per post, so I could quote them individually.

Partner's 3N bid is automatic. He has no other bid.

The problem here is you've pitched hearts! You need to save your hearts. Pitch your useless spades. The spots are really important here. Notice why it's safe to pitch 2 spades from hand.

Then you need to run the HT.

You've got 2 clubs, 5 diamonds, and AK hearts for 9 tricks. If the HT loses, they can cash AK spades, but then you take the rest (10 tricks). If the HT holds, you have 10 by cashing out. But I'd exit a spade and see what the defense does. They'll only be able to cash 2 spades before giving the lead back to you.

Blech. Tough hand. I'd probably bid 2D, and bid hearts over whatever partner bids. I think that should be GF and show a monster with hearts.

At the table with a random, I'd probably bid 4H, but I'm really worried we're missing a slam.

This is close IMO. With an extra king or so, I'm probably taking a bid over 3C. I don't like missing vulnerable games.

I don't actually mind a pass of 1 spade, but whatever 2D is fine. When he bids 3C, bid 3S, and when he bids 3N, just pass. He overbid the **** out of his hand.

IMO, he should just bid 2H over 2D, and you should play 2H.

This is fine if not standard.

+1.

Also, I have to read the story a few times before I understand the auction. It would be easier to read if you wrote the auction more concisely:

1C-(P)-1H-(X)
1N- ...
opps bids in ().

If there's no interference,
1C-1H;
1N-2C;
...

And if you have a question about a bid, just put ??'s there.
1C-(P)-1H-(X)
1N-(P)-??

Just my $0.02.

Impeccable.

For the play: Win the opening lead and play a heart to the ten immediately. If it loses you are golden if the diamonds come in, and not in bad shape if they don't; if it wins you are likely to come to nine tricks but you may need to set up a spade. At IMPs I'd play on spades now, but at matchpoints I might try to run the rest of the tricks.

Be sure to unblock a spade honor from hand if they attack that suit.


So does 3H imo. I bid at least 4H, but maybe 2D in case pard has a 17 count with solid spades that he felt deserved a double. (He should still have heart tolerance or a monster, so 4H is never very bad).


No, as your hand has just gotten quite a bit better. Try 3H, passing 3NT or 4C by parter, and bidding 4C over 3S (you are too weak for 3NT at that point imo).


I like 1C - 1H; 1NT - 2H; all pass. People who feel compelled to show the spades will bid it 1C - 1H; 1S - and then it's tough -- I think the hearts are so weak (as are the diamonds) that I'd try 2S here, where it would rest. If I don'6 support spades I'm rebidding hearts because with my terrible diamond intermediates the suit will not play well opposite poor support -- and that's what I'm getting.

For the record, 6-4-3-0 is a classically tough shape to bid; the decisions are never obvious.


Yes, I'm bidding 3C, but I suspect we're getting to the same place. I am not hauling off into notrump so early in the auction with a void, lest partner correct to 4S when it's not warranted.