So i've been watching some lefort theory videos from back in the day and i assume some range approximations are outdated now due to solvers and the growing change in population tendencies across the board.
but im not quite sure what the following means or how he got to this point:
a = b/(b+1) = 0.588
(1-a)% = 41%
these two equations dont make sense to me whats b+1 and 1-a?
i know 1-a is a shared responsibility for the sb and bb to defend vs BTN but i dont know how to work it out for myself
