during my session the following hand came up and i wasn't sure how to play it. i pushed all-in, but i felt it was probably wrong. so i marked it to analyze it after the session.
here is the hand how it was played:
PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $1.00 BB (7 handed) - Poker-Stars Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com
saw flop |
saw showdown
Button ($105.80)
SB ($59.25)
BB ($117.95)
Hero (UTG) ($140.15)
MP1 ($115.10)
MP2 ($100)
CO ($109.60)
Preflop: Hero is UTG with 8

, 5
Hero bets $3,
1 fold, MP2 calls $3,
2 folds, SB calls $2.50,
1 fold
Flop: ($10) 9

, 4

, A
(3 players)
SB checks,
Hero bets $6,
1 fold,
SB raises to $18,
Hero raises to $137.15 (All-In), SB calls $38.25 (All-In)
Turn: ($122.50) 10
(2 players, 2 all-in)
River: ($122.50) A
(2 players, 2 all-in)
Total pot: $122.50
| Rake: $3
Results:
SB had 9

, A

(full house, Aces over nines).
Hero had 8

, 5

(one pair, Aces).
Outcome: SB won $119.50
now i am not sure if my post-analysis is right. my thoughts about it:
1. how the hand was played:
i think my preflop raise (i mix some sc and suited 1/2gapers in my ep range) and flop c-bet is standard.
then i got raised from the sb (23/8/1.1 over 80 hands).
first i calculated my equity with pokerstove. i gave him AT+;two pairs;sets and some flush draws. my equity against his range is about 35%.
i have 35% or 1.9:1. but my odds when going all-in are about 72:50 or 1.4:1. so i am not getting the right odds to play.
but it could still be profitable if i have enough fold-equity through the all-in. but in that case i guess i have almsot no fold-equity. he his 59bb deep when the hand started and committed a total of 21bb when he raised the flop on an ace high board. so i have to assume he will fold almost never here.
so i played the hand wrong.
2. how the hand is played right:
on the flop i have three choices. raise was wrong. so i still have call and fold.
2a. call:
the pot odds for a call are 2.8:1. my odds for hitting the flush on the turn are 4.1:1, so it's not enough for a call based on pot odds. so i have to look for the implied odds. when i assume i get his whole stack if i hit a diamond on the turn i get 72:12 or 6:1 odds. since i think he is willing to commit his whole stack on the turn i have enough odds to call.
so a call on the flop would be the right play (assuming i will get his whole stack after the flush arrives).
with a diamond on the turn i would push all-in. with a non diamond on the turn i would check-behind or fold if he bets.
2b. fold:
fold would be the right play if i think he would not commit the rest of his stack when a diamond comes on the turn. so if i would not get enough implied odds i have to fold.
is my analysis right here? if not, where is a mistake?
please give me your thoughts about my analysis.