Full Tilt Poker, $2/$4 NL Hold'em Cash Game, 6 Players
LeggoPoker.com - Hand History Converter

UTG: $448.60
MP: $413.40
CO: $404
Hero (BTN): $392
SB: $248.70
BB: $573.20

Pre-Flop: X Y dealt to Hero (BTN)
2 folds, CO raises to $14, Hero calls $14, SB folds, BB calls $10

Flop: ($44) 5 A T (3 Players)
BB checks, CO bets $31, Hero calls $31, BB folds

Turn: ($106) 7 (2 Players)
CO checks, Hero bets $68, CO calls $68

River: ($242) T (2 Players)
CO checks



What does villain have? I don't get it.

With what should I be valuebetting and how much. If I had < my valuebetting range, should I be bluffing and if so how much?


Two fish in the blinds which makes me less likely to 3bet light pre.

Villain is 22/18/3.5/15K. 39% steal.


Not much history with this villain so he probably views me as standard tag based on stats.


edit: villain used a little of his timebank on the turn before calling.

If I were to guess, I'd say weak Ace or turned FD/straight draw. Don't really see what else he'd c/c turn with (if he does it w/ a PP or a T props to him). Thus I'd value-bet A8+ and check behind 66+ - maaybe bluff worse - around 180 (same as my vb in this spot).

Based on flop/turn action, I would guess something marginal and stubborn, anything between A9 to JJ. Maybe a ten.

you know what's strangely important in this scenario? your cards! Additionally, with no history, this board will tell you next to nothing about his hand, because that turn could have given him a number a draw to go with a pair/gutter he peeled with, or he could easily have AJ, A9 or something similar.

If he had Ax, why would he use the timebank on the turn.

If he turned a draw, why would he not 2-barrel?

valuebet AJ+, do not bluff here

He has a weak ace, JJ-KK sometimes

yup yup

through i wouldn't bluff often/never in this spot why shouldn't we till villians hand really don't looks like he wants to play for stacks with it?

hm the only think that sucks here is that or hand really doesn't look that strong ether : D

Once I call the flop I'm usually repping Tx/Ax or better, or I'm on a float/draw.

On the turn I put villain on Tx, JJ-KK, AJ-, air. So I could bet [AJ, A5s, A7s, AT, 55, TT] for value. I expect him to double-barrel straight or flush draws so he doesn't have many outs in any case with the range I put him on: 2 or 3. I think I would bet the turn and not check the flop to allow him to make a big mistake with TP instead of just 1 possible extra street against his non-TP hands. He might end up calling the turn with JJ-KK anyways.
If villain thinks that's how I will play my value-range then he thinks me betting the turn is a polarized range.

Really the only 'normal' draws/floats are gutshots (KQ, KJ, QJ, with or without a backdoor fd). TAGs are usually 3betting KQ though and do TAGs really calls otb with KJo or QJo to a raise? That essentially leaves KJs, QJs.

If he would double barrel against me, he would be repping [AQ-AK, A5, A7, AT, 55, TT, AA]. Same range for third barrel. He would probably double barrel with a backdoordraw, because it's a little less likely for him to bet the flop with the fish in there and he can get me to fold a decent part of my turn-range (given no history); at least, in theory. J8hh has 25 % equity against TP on the turn, and 86hh has 30 %.


I think I can thus to merge QJs and KJs into my AJs,A5s,A7s,55,TT range, with him unable to play correct against it; if I take the same line.

Thus he might call with a weak Ace on the turn but it doesn't matter because he can't profitably call on the river anyways (and he only has 2-3 outs).


Could there be an argument for varying betsizes on the turn or river? Maybe we actually want him to call down with worse or we want to make cheap bluffs?

So you're saying we should be raising with our entire value-range on the flop? (A5s, AT, 55, TT)

Should we be bluffraising the flop with or without a draw?


I think BobboFitos has some opinions on this?

till the only draw on the flop is a gutshot we can't rep a draw very good which give us a lot more credit for having a monster if we raise
i mean if you would be villian what hands would you be happy to continue playing on this flop if you get raise? not a lot i guess... through we also should be raising a good % of your monsters in this spot if we also plan on bluffing here x% of the time...

i personally autoraise my good hands in this spot on the flop which might/should be a leak till only real mosnters will continue in this hand and that's also the case why bluffing the river isn't the best here till we showed on the flop that we got a made hand we don't want to play for stacks/big pots... when you are mixing it up alot and just call a good of amount of your monsters on this flop bluffing wins a lot in value u think (if villian know you are doing it obv.)

fwiw, one good reason to fastplay a strong hand on the flop here is the pfr should not be able to credit you for a good hand because there arent that many (most arent loose enough to have A5 in buttons shoes, and most pfrs assume correctly or incorrectly people repop TT automatically, so it's 55 or ATs) people say "its hard to rep a draw so you need to have a strong hand" which is dumb? why cant people have pure air when they raise?

I think a bluff raise on the flop is an option but it's not a good one, i dont think pfrs fold underpairs to the ace or even a ten, in fact if you cold called AQ for example ('mixing it up') this is a great board to fastplay and get PAID.

that said it looks like pfr wants to showdown, if i had zero showdown value (like total air float of 89) i think it's worth a bet just in case pfr has Kx or XXhh, but normally it's a bad bluff. you SHOULD value bet any ace or better. lower then ace is too thin bc you're often getting c/c by better and it's not a lock they call with say JJ.

Against what range do you think he's valuecalling the turn AND river (thus making it a bad bluff)?

could you possibly elaborate this? the sentence seems a bit vague to me. ty

Should have been:

yeah, that's what i thought