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Preflop 3 bet ranges Preflop 3 bet ranges

03-20-2020 , 04:49 PM
Hi all,

I have purchased a Flopzilla and currently I am trying to build some ranges. I have already built RFI Ranges but I have realised that I am struggling a lot while facing a 3bet preflop.I know that it depends a lot on a table dynamic but I would be thankful if someone shows me some basic ranges against 3bet preflop.I have also seen that I am too aggressive while 3 betting others but I think I am capable of fixing that leak.

Thanks all really apprecciate the help of the community here, I am learning right now and I almost do not even play anymore. First of all I wanted to set some basic rules like ranges and use them a lot at the beginning and later on adjusting based on table dynamic and etc.
Preflop 3 bet ranges Quote
03-20-2020 , 04:55 PM
Google for poker snowie preflop advisor an be tighter.
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03-20-2020 , 05:25 PM
I have just checked it out. Thanks. Only thing I do not understand is if in the snowieīs range field is white, that means it is a fold, but if the field is white and the number is higher than 50, is it than fold or call?.
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03-20-2020 , 05:29 PM
If it's white with a number, snowie will raise with the frequency indicated by the number and fold the other times.
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03-20-2020 , 05:31 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by gettohhole
If it's white with a number, snowie will raise with the frequency indicated by the number and fold the other times.
But why is it white if the number is for example 64. Does it mean that snowie would have raised 64 procent of the time and fold only 36 procent?
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03-20-2020 , 05:38 PM
Jep
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03-20-2020 , 06:00 PM
Okay and the next question is why is it for example when we are facing a BB 3bet from a SB spot that snowie suggest raising with A2s 96% and raising w/AJs only 48%?, that does not make any sense to me
Preflop 3 bet ranges Quote
03-20-2020 , 06:07 PM
Because AJs will be called the rest of the time due to it's eq and playability. Wheras A2s lacks both (at least compared to AJs) but has an A blocker.
Preflop 3 bet ranges Quote
03-20-2020 , 06:11 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by gettohhole
Because AJs will be called the rest of the time due to it's eq and playability. Wheras A2s lacks both (at least compared to AJs) but has an A blocker.
But canīt you say that same about A5s and for A5s is not recommended to be raised..
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03-20-2020 , 06:16 PM
But it's called all the time bc its playability is so sexy dunno those AIs tend to do **** I can't comprehend.
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03-20-2020 , 06:18 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by playmakerrrr
But canīt you say that same about A5s and for A5s is not recommended to be raised..
yes you could substitute a5 for a2 the way these solvers work is that they need a certain amount of (bluff) blocker hands, and since you're kind of using it as a "blocker bluff" its gonna choose the "best of the worst" to remain polarized.
if you do a2 a3 a4 a5 ur gonna have way too many combos of bluffs, so its just choosing a certain one for a certain reason (because a2 is presumably SLIGHTLY worse than a5 - and, thus, "slightly better of the worst or.. slightly worse.. making it a better bluff "

If ranges were wider and it needed more bluffs you can bet your biscuit it would start adding a3 a4 a5 etc.

if the board is K72 your bluffs XR are gonna be like q2 j2 (since these are best blocker bluffs)

you can ask why cant i do 23 24 25 27 etc. the answer is you COULD, but if you're doing any 2x its gonna be way over kill, youre gonna have like 100 blocker bluffs and only a handfull of nuts (kk 77 22 k2 k7). and given that you need a FINITE number of bluffs, the kicker will come into acount.. why would q2 j2 be preferable to 23 24, why aren't they interchangeable? the answer is the Q or J give a slight edge becasue they have blocker to TP . It might be even tighter than that, and choose only j2 q2 with BDFD becasue q2 j2 has too many more combos of bluffs than u do nuts, and the BDFD makes it easier to continue on turn when u pick up equity while simultaneously narrowing ur combos to appropriate number.


TLDR : its a polarization thing, if u think of ur hands on a spectrum of 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 T where T is ur nuts that u bet, and 0 is the bluffs that you bet, its choosing the 0's for a reason, generally because they have no value/ high blocker potential ( or the blocker potential outweighs whatever little value they have). a2 in this situation is 0, a5 might be like 0.75 or something.. if u start adding 8 and 9's in for value betting, you'll start adding 1 and 2 in for bluffs, and a5 would likely get included.

again, as ranges widen, it will start adding more combos.
HOpe that makes sense

Last edited by LordPallidan12; 03-20-2020 at 06:26 PM.
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03-20-2020 , 06:18 PM
lol ok...no more questions for now, I think some stuff I just need to do it as recommended and not ask questions
Thanks Lord...it is a bit clearer now but still I can not imagine to 4bet w/A2s so many amount of times, even if itīs SB vs BB..but I am doing these ranges and I am going to play by them

Last edited by playmakerrrr; 03-20-2020 at 06:26 PM.
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03-20-2020 , 06:31 PM
fwiw as long as ur in the right realm of hand choices, (like the dif between a2 and a5) the precise hand you choose is like a .00001bb EV edge (OR WHATEVER -ITS VERY TINY/negligible) in most cases.. whats 10000x more important is that you have an appropriate RATIO of bluffs: value , how you split hairs over the exact hand pales in comparison, as long as the ratio is appropriate and you have a way of retaining/implementing it (copying a pre solved range is an easy way). So id worry about that
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