Hi,

Does anyone know the answer to this?

Thanks!

50%

Edit: nm

odds are less if you are good enough to get away pf

Ok, thanks for all the useless answers, looking for a percentage please guys

just fold

1 in 32 for full ring if I recall correctly.

well that depends on how aggressive the other player is; around 3-7% if he is really aggro, and around 31-67% if he is more nitty.

I mean the mathematical odds of someone having KK and someone having AA in the same hand. ArturiusX, thanks for the reply, do you know the answer for 6max?

it still depends on player images and table dynamics etc, not to mention history with other players.

almost as good as running into ace king

Renwaldo. I'm going to be really nice here, even though you are a troll. What FionnMac is saying is correct. I mean, if you played the tightest player in the world, and he suddenly reraised you preflop, oddses are quite high that he has Aces. If he plays every other hand, oddses are quite high he has some crap hand. Conditional probability is much more useful than just saying. "Well, given that I have KK, there is one chance in 204 and 1/6 that the othey guy has AA" or, "Given that I have KK, at a 6max table there a 2,425% risk that someone else has AA".

You cant reason like that... If one player has kk its a certain % another player will have aa it depends on how many player there is in the hand. If you are facing one player it is 1/256 he have aa if you pick up kk.

Its a completely other % if you put it like you did. Then it will be 1/256*1/256 you pick up kk AND the other player picks up aa. then the stat will be 1/65536 (if you face one opponment).

But as I stated Every time you pick up KK there are 1/256 / player chance someone has AA. So if you play 6 max full tables every 42 KK you have somwone will have AA. (well its aproximate numbers and variance plays a big roll ofcourse.)

Oh and as stated above these are purely math and when counting in tendensies etc these numbers change alot.

LOL. I'm not trying to talk about playing against a tight/weak/crazy player, I'm not talking about a specific hand, I'm not talking about anything in particular, I just wondered what the ACTUAL MATHEMATICAL chance that if 1 person has KK, at a 6max table, what are the MATHEMATICAL odds that someone at the same table has AA?

gfejs: Thanks for your reply - are you saying there's a 1/256 chance that if you have KK, someone else has AA at a 6max table, as that doesn't sound right to be at all. If there are 220 unique hand combinations (not including suits), then I guess heads up the chance would be 1/220. Does that mean I can divide the figure by 6 (or 5?) to get the odds of someone else having AA at a table when someone has KK? Your 1/65536 odds are completely way off the mark as well.

fsista and FionnMac: I don't think you're understanding what I'm asking - I'm not talking about any specific hands/players at all - look at it this way - if a computer played another computer 10 million times, how many times would his AA run into another person's KK - this is what I'm asking.

Hi again, guy with below avg reading comprahension.

Heads up, the risk is one in 204,16666..., which is (4/50)*(3/49)

At a six max table, the risk is ca 2,425% which is [1-(4/50)*(3/49)]^5

Isn't this junior high school math btw?

Ok, thanks - odds are like 1/40 then at a 6 max table? I didn't understand your post before because you used a comma instead of a decimal point.

In Europe, the decimal comma is ",". And no. At a 6 max table it's not one chance in 40. Probability doesn't work that way. Let's say you flip a coin. 50% heads and 50% tails. Just because it's 50%, it doesn't mean there is a 100% probability that you will get tails once when you flip it twice.

I'll repeat.

AT A SIX MAX TABLE, A TABLE WHERE YOU AND FIVE OTHER PLAYERS ARE PLAYING THE GAME OF TEXAS HOLD 'EM, THE RISK OF SOMEONE ELSE HAVING AA GIVEN THAT YOU HAVE KK IS [1-(4/50)*(3/49)]^5 , WHICH TRANSLATES INTO CIRCA TWO POINT FOURHUNDRED AND TWENTY FIVE PERCENT.

fsista, chill out! I'm in the UK, and a decimal point here is a full stop - like this. A comma indicates when someone is counting a high number - example, the population of the UK is approximately 62,000,000 people. Hence my confusion.

And, if there is a 2.4% chance, then this means that every 1/40 times roughly that you get dealt KK, someone has AA (and vice versa). That IS how probability works.

I'd like to say thanks for your help, but you're an arrogant incorrect prick so I'll refrain.

yeah fsista what are the odds you were kicked in the head as a baby stop being a ******ed douche

and people say the quality of this forum has gone downhill, egg on their face

Wow, sorry, I'm ******ed. Nvm me I had a bad day.

989:1