Villain is 70/0/5.0 in a very small sample.
In the first hand he donks, and I put him on a flushdraw, I know he'd chase a draw for his full stack, so I put him all in. Was this the correct thing to do?
Second hand I didn't cbet because hes a calling station and the flop hit his range. Turn is a scarecard and it was very likely that he would fold a bet there, so I decided to wait for the river and bet which would increase the chances of him calling. His raise confuses me and the only thing that would make sense would be 33, random ace or some spazz. Shouldve I just had flatted the raise?
Full Tilt Poker $0.01/$0.02 Pot Limit Hold'em - 2 players
The Official
2+2 Hand Converter
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Hero (BTN/SB): $3.37
BB: $0.72
Pre Flop: ($0.03) Hero is BTN/SB with Q
9
Hero raises to $0.06, BB calls $0.04
Flop: ($0.12) 8
Q
J
(2 players)
BB bets $0.10,
Hero raises to $0.42,
BB raises to $0.66 all in, Hero calls $0.24
Turn: ($1.44) 3
(2 players - 1 is all in)
River: ($1.44) T
(2 players - 1 is all in)
Full Tilt Poker $0.01/$0.02 Pot Limit Hold'em - 2 players
The Official
2+2 Hand Converter
Powered By DeucesCracked.com
Hero (BB): $2.69
BTN/SB: $1.31
Pre Flop: ($0.03) Hero is BB with K
A
BTN/SB calls $0.01,
Hero raises to $0.06, BTN/SB calls $0.04
Flop: ($0.12) 5
8
7
(2 players)
Hero checks, BTN/SB checks
Turn: ($0.12) A
(2 players)
Hero checks, BTN/SB checks
River: ($0.12) 3
(2 players)
Hero bets $0.12,
BTN/SB raises to $0.24,
Hero raises to $0.84, BTN/SB calls $0.60