I assume you call pre because you think you can bluff raise some flops,

if so I just get it in on the flop, I don't think he folds his value range. And I think his range consists of mostly (well close to 100% imo) value.

Text results appended to pokerstove.txt

14,850 games 0.005 secs 2,970,000 games/sec

Board: Qh 9c 5d
Dead:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 39.657% 39.66% 00.00% 5889 0.00 { QQ+ }
Hand 1: 60.343% 60.34% 00.00% 8961 0.00 { 9h5h }


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I don't see the problem

fold turn here
but you should have shoved flop imo
His range OTF is Basically AQ, KK, AA, straight draws ??. I don't think JJ- or sets would play out like this seeing as how villain views us

Just wanted to point out that a check/raise happens more often than you think, and that you not encountering this might be an example of variance/you're memory not being perfect.

When I said that they probably have an overpair when I fold, I was making a little joke since I am not a superuser or anything near that. I'm sorry that it didn't come across very well.

I'm not sure why you include that last sentence as it's a completely different situation (being the preflop aggressor as opposed to playing against him).

You dont know how I play in those situations (dont worry though). It is these corner cases where I think I can improve, esp at 25nl where oponents play pretty face up.

Anyway, is it possible to stop talking about how I would have played it if he didnt checkraise or if I didnt flop 2 pair because thats not the case and there was some history.
Again....

In my memory, over the last 50k hands, I was beat everytime I got it in against a min c/r from decent players. Even got it in with a set twice and I was beat (standard cooler obv, but woteva). To me it should be a fold here based on my past experience but the problem is that its realy hard to come up with a standard (like the baluga theorem or something) based on 50k hands and experience.

I just wondered how others handle this but then I had to explain why I called preflop.

not to be a dick but if you have such a good read on him then why did you call the flop check minraise when drawing dead?

I mean why even post this hand at all?

what if you checkraise after you 3bet in the SB?

You cannot c-bet without being the aggressor in the earlier street by definition. Just some semantic **** I was referring to.

Well, you said "c/r'ing against players that c-bets often", I guess that means that it shouldn't be a c-bet in this particular hand but not sure why you would include such a tendency as it's not really related.

Not really worth the discussion all together.

I think its alot easier to play if he didnt MIN-checkraise into my two pair or if I flopped air or a good draw for instance. This is more a 'corner-case'... And I agree calling was bad. (I said that somewhere ^^^)

I agree on all points (esp the the last one though)... Its not considered a c-bet that way. I was wrong.

Get it in on the flop.ASAP.
Why do u think hes 3bet is small?!
C/r 's are really uncommon in 3 bet pots, dont ask for oppinions what a c/r could mean without reads like are u attacking his 3bets postflop and so on....

Kind of funny that at first I thought you had to be at a pretty advanced level and probably way ahead of me pokerwise because you call 3bets with 95s. Now you're starting to doubt stacking off with bottom two in a 3bet pot it's completely the other way. N/o. I might be wrong as well.

Didn't read the whole discussion but this is my view on the matter (again).

Let's assume his range for taking this line is QQ+. Any other viable hand that you will add to this range will further enhance your equity.
1) there are way more combinations of AA and KK than QQ, esp. with a queen on the board
2) I think he takes this line with a bare overpair more often. QQ he will either c-bet or c/c for deception very often.

1+2=fistpump? I mean ... How can you not agree with this.