Oaks 30-60. UTG folds; I'm UTG+1 with TT. I open-raise. MP2, a semi-TAG, coldcalls. BB calls.
Flop comes Q J 9. BB checks. I bet. MP2 raises. BB folds. I three-bet. MP2 four-bets. I call.
Turn: K My action is .... ?
Why the 3-bet on the flop? This flop nails a typical cold-calling range.
As played, bet the turn, call a raise, and if the board doesn't pair or a diamond hits on the river, bet-call.
I don't like the flop 3-bet. On the turn, what's the question? Checking absolutely sucks since he can take a free card with a bunch of diamond draws or hands that are scared of the scary straight card that came on the turn. So c/r is out. Just bet it and keep betting.
I decided that no hand that I beat was going to bet the turn and I didn't want to give a free card to a diamond draw; so I donked. Villain thought for a moment, then folded.
Why not 3b the turn? It seems like his range is mostly sets and flushdraws (with KdJd 12 outer), chops, and a sliver of AT. Don't we have >66% equity here?