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Originally Posted by ChrisV
I have a personal interest in low levels of crime, but I never have a pressing personal interest in preventing one particular crime.
If crime levels are low, I am less likely to be victimised by crime. Also, it encourages more economically productive behaviour, which indirectly benefits me.
So there is a demand for crime prevention, and you even have a particular interest in it yourself. I would hope so, otherwise we could conclude that state-provided police is just another wasteful government program.
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Jesus, you people are frustrating. You keep moving the goalposts.
How is that a goalpost shift?
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Are you or are you not arguing that AC is a system which will prevent people's rights from being violated?
I am not.
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If you are, then maybe you can go and argue with Nielsio, because every time I try to argue against that proposition, he protests that AC "is not a system" and that he "isn't proposing anything in particular".
I would agree with that. Further, I would not claim that under AC, that violations of rights would be prevented. Rights violations will occur. I'm not a utopian.
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If you aren't, but you agree with the proposition that liberties are violated less often in modern democracies than they have been in the past, then you're objectively advocating a return to less liberty.
That's only true if you're going to argue that either:
1) the status quo is the absolute pinnacle of rights preservation. Since we can show a lot of recent developments in rights violations in "modern democracies" that's going to be a tall order.
or
2) what I'm advocating is something that you have historical records of, AND will turn out exactly the same every time.
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My point was that it is possible to bear moral responsibility for inaction as well as for action. Anyway rather than come up with another even more stretched one, I'll return to a point I made earlier. What's wrong with the government telling you what to do? They own the land. Any land you "own" you can consider to really be leased to you by the government (they can after all repossess it at any time via eminent domain).
The fact that they "can" repossess it doesn't show legitimate ownership. Decree doesn't show legitimate ownership.
What would be different if I simply said that I own whatever land you're standing on, so you better do what I say?
Does might make right?
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Part of their rules for you using their land is that you aren't allowed to secede from the government. If you like, you can argue that the government's ownership of all land in the United States is illegitimate
This isn't unique to the US. No government can legitimately own property. Here's something I posted in another thread a while back:
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I would *definitely* argue that governments have no legitimate basis to acquire land resell them. I believe I've addressed this in a previous thread. Basically, it comes down to the fact that the nature of government makes it impossible for a state to have a property right: states acquire land either by buying it (with stolen funds), by decree (which does not confer a legitimate property right) (also note escheat would fall into this category), by conquest (effectively robbery), by emminent domain (a subset of conquest), or by "working" the land (which would not confer property rights in the case of government, since they are working the land either with conscripted labor or they are purchasing labor with stolen funds).
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, in which case I suppose you'd all have to bail out of America and hand the land back to native Americans.
Well, maybe. AFAIK, most native americans didn't really have the concept of land ownership. And they certainly didn't own the entire continent. And you would have this problem basically everywhere in the entire world.
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In short I don't see how the existence of the government is contradictory to AC principles; it's simply a monopoly land owner.
I've already said that these are not mutually exclusive. You can have all of the government you want on your own land. It's not the existence of government that is objectionable, it's the forcible inclusion of other people. The "monopoly land owner" is illegitimate because the ownership is not legitimate, and the monopoly is established by violence, not voluntary agreements.
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When I've made this point before, similar to the argument that Somalia is an example of an AC society in action, it's generally met with a lot of scoffing and very little in the way of counterarguments.
Because it's not true.
A) there is a government there
B) the previous government basically crashed the entire country (the "I was drinking last night, I stopped drinking, now I have a hangover, obviously not drinking causes hangovers" argument)
C) there's really no widespread concept of "capitalism" or respect for property rights.
If somalia is a representative example of an AC society, then I will claim north korea as a representative example of a statist society.
That said, somalia actually has made a lot of improvements over many of its neighbors that have more invasive governments.
CIA factbook:
"Despite the seeming anarchy, Somalia's service sector has managed to survive and grow. Telecommunication firms provide wireless services in most major cities and offer the lowest international call rates on the continent. In the absence of a formal banking sector, money exchange services have sprouted throughout the country, handling between $500 million and $1 billion in remittances annually. Mogadishu's main market offers a variety of goods from food to the newest electronic gadgets. Hotels continue to operate, and militias provide security."
http://www.cia.gov/cia/publications/...s/so.html#Econ
See also the 2004 world bank report:
http://rru.worldbank.org/Documents/2...va-harford.pdf
Somalia has lacked a recognized government since 1991 -- an unusually long time. In extremely difficult conditions the private sector has demonstrated its much-vaunted capability to make do. To cope with the absence of the rule of law, private enterprises have been using foreign jurisdictions or institutions to help with some tasks, operating within networks of trust to strengthen property rights, and simplifying transactions until they require neither. Somalia's private sector experience suggests that it may be easier than is commonly thought for basic systems of finance and some infrastructure services to function where government is extremely weak or absent."
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A lot. Come on man, they've done this on current affairs shows. If you drop a wallet full of money in a public place, there are an absolute ton of people who don't return it with money intact.
A decidedly different situation.
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Edit: btw, to some extent you're conflating the violence with the theft. If you have to physically wrestle the money off her, you'll get less people doing it than if you can just pinch it out of a dropped wallet.
Wow, nice nit quibble. Is it "less bad" if she hands over her wallet without a fight when you're bigger, faster, and stronger?
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A whole host of reasons, probably none of them the ones you're thinking of. Here's a better question: Coke and Pepsi currently offer financial incentives for retailers to switch loyalties. For instance, here in Australia, Coke paid for all of Subway's toasting ovens in return for Subway switching from Pepsi to Coke. In industries run by organised crime, gangs routinely threaten force to compel companies to use their services (see my next paragraph below). Why would this not happen in legitimate industries? Wouldn't hiring someone to threaten force be more cost-effective in a lot of cases than offering incentives? If not, why doesn't organised crime take the approach of offering incentives?
If it IS more cost effective, why isn't coke hiring thugs to break knee-caps? You didn't ask a different question, you just re-phrased the same question.
Underground markets have reduced competition. You can get away with violence when your customers don't have any alternatives. This is also the reason that government officials are able to extract bribes - they have a monopoly!
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Did you really just ask "Why doesn't organised crime branch out into legitimate industries"? Dude, they do. Here in Adelaide, one of the security industries which IS up for public competition - nightclub bouncers - was completely monopolised by organised crime in the form of bikie gangs, who backed up their monopoly with force when necessary. This was such a problem that the government thought it necessary to pass special laws to deal with it.
Ok, this is good. So the idea that underground markets are always more profitable isn't true, since this gang found the opportunity cost of passing on additional underground activity to be less than the potential in a "legitimate" market.
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Can you explain to me what prevents force-backed monopolies like this arising in AC-land? If they can arise with a police force opposing them, doing it in AC-land will be a piece of cake.
Well, the state (another force-backed monopoly) apparently didn't stop this from arising!
As for how easy this would be without a state monopoly, well, first consider that organized crime wouldn't have contraband markets from which to build their power base. Second, consider that without a monopoly police force, competition would likely provide more effective security resource allocation (both through the removal of the monopoly and through the end of things like the war on drugs).
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Edit: To answer your actual question, there are a number of reasons organised crime don't get into the specific industries you mentioned. Chief among them, they don't want to be involved in industries where they need big physical assets (which might be seized), and the industries you mentioned are high volume and low margin, which are industries where use of force to establish a monopoly is difficult.
Yes! And without government creating black markets, drugs would be a similarly low-margin market.
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Er, dude, total revenues of the Coca-Cola Company in 2007 were less than $30 billion, while the annual worldwide value of the drug trade is estimated at $400 billion, with higher profit margins for wholesalers. You might want to check you know what you're talking about before launching into an argument.
Oh, we're comparing one market player with an entire market (and at that, one where government intervention drives prices up)? Yeah, I'm definitely the one who needs to check what he's talking about. Where is the magic number between a $30 billion individual player and a $400 billion global market where things change?