Open Side Menu Go to the Top
Register
Why taxes on capital income should be zero Why taxes on capital income should be zero

10-01-2012 , 10:58 PM
There's a widespread belief that the lower tax rates of capital gains compared to ordinary income in the US is "unfair".

But this is wrong. The simple reason: capital gains taxes (as well as taxes on interest and other returns to capital) are double taxation. Perhaps more meaningfully (in response to the inevitable "isn't all taxation double taxation?" retort), they tax future consumption at a rate above that of present consumption, while still taxing labour. Even if you want the tax system to remain similarly progressive, you could achieve this without unnecessarily taxing the profligate over the frugal (such as via a progressive consumption tax).

I would have come up with my own analogies to further my point, but others have done a better job of it already.

A simple example showing how capital gains taxes are double taxation

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Landsburg
Alice and Bob each work a day and earn a dollar. Alice spends her dollar right away. Bob invests his dollar, waits for it to double, and then spends the resulting two dollars. Let’s see how the tax code affects them.


First add a wage tax. Alice and Bob each work a day, earn a dollar, pay 50 cents tax and have 50 cents left over. Alice spends her fifty cents right away. Bob invests his fifty cents, waits for it to double, and then spends the resulting one dollar.

What does the wage tax cost Alice? Answer: 50% of her consumption (which is down from a dollar to fifty cents). What does it cost Bob? Answer: 50% of his consumption (which is down from two dollars to one dollar). In the absence of a capital gains tax, Alice and Bob are both being taxed at the same rate.

Now add a 10% capital gains tax. Alice and Bob each work a day, earn a dollar, pay 50 cents tax and have 50 cents left over. Alice spends her fifty cents right away. Bob invests his fifty cents, waits for it to double, pays a 5 cent capital gains tax, and is left with 95 cents to spend.

What does the tax code cost Alice? Answer: 50% of her consumption (which is down from a dollar to fifty cents). What does the tax code cost Bob? Answer: 52.5% of his consumption (which is down from two dollars to 95 cents).

So there you have it: A 50% wage tax, together with a 10% capital gains tax, is equivalent to a 52.5% tax on Bob’s income. In fact, you could have achieved exactly the same result by taxing Bob at a 52.5% rate in the first place: He earns a dollar, you take 52.5% of it, he invests the remaining 47.5 cents, waits for it to double, and spends the resulting 95 cents.
Landsburg's other posts on the subject are also worth reading.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Landsburg
A tax on wages is (among other things) a tax on capital gains, because your capital gains are proportional to your savings and a tax on wages reduces your savings. Capital gains, therefore, are taxed in advance at exactly the same rate as earned income. The capital gains tax (along with any other tax on capital income) sits on top of that. And it’s only the total that matters.
A thorough and illustrative analysis of how the notion of "income" is misleading.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Scott Sumner
Suppose 2 brothers both make $100,000 a year. One spends his income on watermelon, and the other spends it on blueberries. Would it make sense to decry the inequality of this society, merely because the blueberry eater got to consume a larger number of “fruits” (because their unit price was lower?) Clearly not, and for two very good reasons.

1. They are each free to buy either type of fruit.

2. The higher unit price of watermelon indicates they are more highly valued (per individual fruit.)

Now assume it’s possible to invest income at a real rate of interest that allow one to quintuple one’s wealth between age 25 and 65. (Say a 40 year zero coupon real bond yielding around 4%.) In this example let both brothers consume nothing but blueberries. One brother chooses not to save at all, the other saves 40% of his income. One eats $100,000 worth of blueberries today; the other eats $60,000 today and saves $40,000. After 40 years the thrifty brother gets to eat $200,000 worth of blueberries. Both also get some social security at 65. Here’s my question: In this society is there any economic inequality?

I don’t see how anyone could say there is. Both have exactly the same wage income at age 25. Yes, they do different things with it, but that’s their choice. At age 65 one has zero income outside social security, and the other has $160,000 in capital gains, which is generally considered “income.” But nonetheless there is complete equality for two reasons:

1. Both are free to choose whether to save or not, so we have no evidence that one brother had more utility than the other.

2. In present value terms their total lifetime consumption of blueberries is identical.

The mistake is assuming that blueberries in 40 year are the same thing as blueberries today. Future blueberries only cost 1/5th as much, as they are much less valued than current blueberries. They are different goods just as much as watermelon and blueberries are different goods. That $160,000 gain is not “income” in the way most people think of the term, i.e. as some sort of goodie available for spending. Rather it reflects deferred consumption. The $200,000 received at 65 is exactly equal in present value to the $40,000 saved today. Indeed it is the very same wealth, simply measured at a different point in time. It is nonsensical to say the thrifty brother has income of $100,000 today plus another $160,000 at age 65, you’d be counting the same income twice.
To show that this isn't just some right-wing plot to give more money to rich people, here's progressive blogger Matthew Yglesias arguing against the standard Democratic line:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew Yglesias
But this is definitely an issue where the conservative position is in line with what most experts think is the right course, and Democrats are outside the mainstream.

The reasoning is basically this. You imagine two prosperous but not outrageously so working people living somewhere—two doctors, say, living in nearby small towns. They're both pulling in incomes in the low six figures. One doctor chooses to spend basically 100 percent of his income on expensive non-durables. He goes on annual vacations to expensive cities and eats in a lot of fancy restaurants. The other doctor is much more frugal, not traveling much and eating modestly. Instead, he spends a lot of his money on hiring people to build buildings around town. Those buildings become houses, offices, retail stores, factories, etc. In other words, they're capital. And capital earns a return, so over time the second doctor comes to have a much higher income than the first doctor.

So then there are too different scenarios:

— In the world where investment income isn't taxed, the second doctor says to the first doctor "all those fancy vacations may be fun, but I'm being much more prudent. By saving for the future, I'll be comfortable when it comes time to retire and will have plenty left over to give to my kids."
— In the world where investment income is taxed like labor income, the first doctor says to the second "man you're a sucker—not only are you deferring enjoyment of the fruits of your labor (boring) but when the money you've saved comes back to you, it gets taxed all over again. Live in the now."
Here's an ungated academic paper (warning: technical) on why the efficient tax on capital is zero.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Atkenson, Chari & Kehoe
... Chamley shows that in the steady state, the optimal tax rate on capital income is zero. This makes sense if you realize that a constant tax rate on capital income is equivalent to an ever-increasing tax rate on consumption. Under a wide variety of assumptions, such a tax on consumption cannot be optimal.

Chamley’s (1986) result has not been universally accepted because it is based on a narrow set of assumptions: identical and infinitely lived consumers, steadystate growth not affected by taxes, and a closed economy. Here we lay out a simple framework in which we describe Chamley’s result and then relax his assumptions, one by one, to see if the zero capital income tax
result still holds. It does.
But what about those hedge fund managers who get to pay lower tax rates on "carried interest", subverting any need to pay ordinary income?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Landsburg
It’s true that there are some hedge fund managers out there who manage to game the system by disguising their wages as capital gains and thereby avoiding the wage tax altogether. That in no way undermines the main point.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew Yglesias
This is also separate from the question of whether hedge fund and private equity fund managers should be allowed to pretend their labor income is really investment income by calling it "carried interest" and paying at a low rate.

Last edited by Nichlemn; 10-01-2012 at 11:03 PM.
10-01-2012 , 11:01 PM
LDO
10-01-2012 , 11:09 PM
10-01-2012 , 11:09 PM
It doesn't matter, this will instantly turn into a "WHY DO YOU HATE POOR PEOPLE" emotionfest.
10-01-2012 , 11:12 PM
Nice OP, but consensus on this forum seems to be taxing capital gains at 75% because it's like free money for rich scum.
10-01-2012 , 11:21 PM
Even actual socialists in France know this.
10-01-2012 , 11:28 PM
I get paid via food stamps. Your capital gains are double taxed, then shipped to me and I have to pay taxes when I use it. The real crime is me getting triple taxed.
10-01-2012 , 11:32 PM
Corporations are people, my friend.
10-01-2012 , 11:36 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by pvn
It doesn't matter, this will instantly turn into a "WHY DO YOU HATE POOR PEOPLE" emotionfest.
Just relax, there are plenty of people here to shill for those more fortunate than they.
10-01-2012 , 11:45 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Trolly McTrollson
So predictable I was going to post it and preemptively rebut it, but anyway.

"Double taxation" is somewhat of a misleading term, which I alluded to. It's not about "a dollar being taxed once and then taxed again" - all dollars have been taxed many many times, yet for some reason people aren't facing effective tax rates of near 100% for normal consumption, while they clearly do face higher effective tax rates on savings as illustrated by these examples. It's about the incidence of these taxes.

Imagine I own a store that sells widgets, which share the average properties of all goods sold in the country. There is a flat income tax of 20%. I earn $50,000 a year, paying 20% in taxes, leaving me with $40,000 a year. The government then announces a tax increase to 30%. How much does this affect me? Well, some people's taxes will go up with no compensating gains, leaving them with less money to buy widgets. But the government presumably does something with the extra revenue it raises, perhaps giving transfer payments to some people (who can buy more widgets) or directly spending it (some of it on widgets). It all depends on what happens to AD - it could go up if the spending has a stimulative effective, or down due to the deadweight loss of taxation. Let's assume the net effect is zero. In that case, I still make $50,000 a year pre-tax a year, but my post-tax income decreases to $35,000. I am not "doubled taxed" as a result of other people's taxes increasing. However, as the other examples show, I am double-taxed by taxes on savings.

In any case, the "double taxation" rhetoric is tangential to the point that capital taxes unnecessarily distort inter-temporal consumption choices when equally progressive taxation schemes exist without this flaw.
10-01-2012 , 11:47 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by pvn
It doesn't matter, this will instantly turn into a "WHY DO YOU HATE POOR PEOPLE" emotionfest.
My prediction was nittery about tangential points and snarky one-liners that miss the point. Thread succeeds thus far.
10-01-2012 , 11:51 PM
Why does the OP seem to state that saving=investing?
10-01-2012 , 11:54 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by pvn
It doesn't matter, this will instantly turn into a "WHY DO YOU HATE POOR PEOPLE" emotionfest.
Also, probably more like "WHY DO YOU WANT TO GIVE FREE MONIES TO RICH PEOPLE?"

Last edited by Nichlemn; 10-01-2012 at 11:59 PM. Reason: despite the fact you can eliminate capital taxes *and* have a more progressive tax system
10-01-2012 , 11:56 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nichlemn
My prediction was nittery about tangential points and snarky one-liners that miss the point. Thread succeeds thus far.
the problem is, capital gains taxes are *not* double taxation. they are not unfair, or evil, or anything else. income generated from investment
Spoiler:
is still income
.
10-01-2012 , 11:58 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by neverfoldthe1outer
the problem is, capital gains taxes are *not* double taxation. they are not unfair, or evil, or anything else. income generated from investment
Spoiler:
is still income
.
Please read the second link as to why income is a flawed measure of economic inequality.
10-02-2012 , 12:01 AM
the big question is , how will the govt replace that money ? we are talking big sums here, and the way they have budgeted things , tax receivables collected are at a premium .
the tax rate on long term capital gains have already been lowered. your idea will NEVER happen.
10-02-2012 , 12:01 AM
Disagree strongly with the OP. Will elaborate when I have time.
10-02-2012 , 12:03 AM
New scenario for you:

Bob inherits $1,000,000 and invests it while never working a day in his life making a gain of 10% over a year, his income is zero and all his money comes from capital gains and the tax on capital is now zero.

Alice works hard each day and earns $100,000 is taxed at 50% and spends it all right away.

What does the tax code cost Alice? Answer: 50% of her consumption (which is down from a dollar to fifty cents). What does the tax code cost Bob? Answer: 0% of his consumption.
10-02-2012 , 12:07 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by TomT
New scenario for you:

Bob inherits $1,000,000 and invests it while never working a day in his life making a gain of 10% over a year, his income is zero and all his money comes from capital gains and the tax on capital is now zero.

Alice works hard each day and earns $100,000 is taxed at 50% and spends it all right away.

What does the tax code cost Alice? Answer: 50% of her consumption (which is down from a dollar to fifty cents). What does the tax code cost Bob? Answer: 0% of his consumption.
+1 , also, does OP want to eliminate short term and lt capital gains tax?

if both, even my sick grandma will become a daytrader.
10-02-2012 , 12:13 AM
Seems like the premise is that because you were taxed initially at 50%, you cant invest what you could have, and the opportunity cost of the missed investment is being described as a tax on future capital gains equal to the wage tax. Is this correct?
10-02-2012 , 12:21 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nichlemn
Please read the second link as to why income is a flawed measure of economic inequality.
please understand that economists are not scientists. they have no way to test/prove/disprove anything they say. they cannot be held accountable to facts, and work only in the realm of theory.
10-02-2012 , 12:27 AM
This looks like a stupid math trick to me.

In the first Stevan Landsburg example that OP posts, Bob is making $1.50 total, not $2.00. He makes $1.00 through work and then another $0.50 with his investment. There's no reason to count the investment amount again because it's not taxed, only the GAIN is taxed. So in reality Bob is only being taxed $0.55 of $1.50 in income which is 36.7%. Of course Alice is still being taxed at 50%.

The "percent of consumption" thing doesn't make sense to me. It shouldn't matter HOW you are making your income. If you make an extra $0.50 using your post-tax income, that's your choice. It's still new income and it should still be taxed at the same rate.

OP - Am I missing something? Why am I wrong?
10-02-2012 , 12:35 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jake (The Snake)
This looks like a stupid math trick to me.

In the first Stevan Landsburg example that OP posts, Bob is making $1.50 total, not $2.00. He makes $1.00 through work and then another $0.50 with his investment. There's no reason to count the investment amount again because it's not taxed, only the GAIN is taxed. So in reality Bob is only being taxed $0.55 of $1.50 in income which is 36.7%. Of course Alice is still being taxed at 50%.

The "percent of consumption" thing doesn't make sense to me. It shouldn't matter HOW you are making your income. If you make an extra $0.50 using your post-tax income, that's your choice. It's still new income and it should still be taxed at the same rate.

OP - Am I missing something? Why am I wrong?
This is what I thought as well. It seems like he's counting the fact that bob could only invest 50 cents instead of his whole dollar, so he only made 1/2 of what he could have on his investment, and concluding that this is equivalent to a 50% tax on his capital gain.
10-02-2012 , 12:52 AM
Sustainable Revenue >>> Means of taxation
10-02-2012 , 12:52 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by TomT
New scenario for you:

Bob inherits $1,000,000 and invests it while never working a day in his life making a gain of 10% over a year, his income is zero and all his money comes from capital gains and the tax on capital is now zero.

Alice works hard each day and earns $100,000 is taxed at 50% and spends it all right away.

What does the tax code cost Alice? Answer: 50% of her consumption (which is down from a dollar to fifty cents). What does the tax code cost Bob? Answer: 0% of his consumption.
So should we punish people for saving money to give to their kids or friends when they die?

      
m