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Originally Posted by 13ball
The vast majority of the land in the US was forcibly stolen at some point.
Ok, aside from simply asserting this, do you really have any proof of it?
That sounds like something to be determined upon on an individual basis
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Originally Posted by DrModern
I personally might prefer life to death, and by inference we know therefore that if I wish to actualize this preference, I must appropriate some amount of resources for my exclusive use, but this has no implications about the preference structures of others, nor does a preference constitute an objective moral norm.
Everyone being alive right now demonstrates their preference, so yes, we actually can say something about the preference structure of others.
The purpose of norms is the avoidance of conflict regarding the use of scarce physical things. Conflict generating norms contradict the very purpose of norms, would you not agree?
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Almost all land currently owned by a private owner involves, at one point or another in time, a transaction with a person who took the land by force, in most cases by conquest, by eminent domain, escheatment, etc. are relevant here as well. Therefore, if you want to claim that the state's ownership of the land is illegitimate because the basis of its titular claim is conquest, eminent domain, escheatment, etc., the same is necessarily true of the current private owner. It doesn't much matter that you can posit a hypothetical anarcho-capitalist society, since any claim private owners might make to land would still face this difficulty if the society were to exist here on earth. Barring some science fiction scenario, either the state's claim to the land is no more or less legitimate than a private owner's, or anarcho-capitalism is rendered infeasible because almost all the land here on earth is tainted with blood.
The problem arises from the fact that you are assuming all private property currently in individual hands was at one point in time forcibly taken. In absence of argumentation (and proof), this is nothing but an assumption.
The state, on the otherhand, inherently uses violence and force to gain control of resources. This is a systematic characteristic of a state.
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Even you don't believe that property rights are absolute.
Yes, yes I do. And it is because I believe this that I also believe in proportionality.
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If I, a person whose race you dislike and whom you have expressly forbidden by law ex ante to set foot on your land, do in fact set foot on your land, and you view this as a violent act of aggression, are you entitled to shoot and kill me? I hope your answer is "of course not." I'm not equating property in the general case with land ownership, I'm discussing the way in which land ownership plays a special role within a property schematic.
I can answer "of course not" and still believe property rights as absolute. You, of course, own property in yourself. It goes back to proportionality.
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I wasn't asked for a comment just on his argument. I don't understand why it makes you angry that I think he was probably a xenophobe on the basis of his vitriolic writing style.
Well I just believe it was a worthless comment that really added nothing to the argument at all. The link was posted because it is an argument concerning immigration from a fairly prominent libertarian thinker, and illustrated that there are pro and anti open border arguments from the libertarian camp.
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I'm saying, as I think any sensible person would, whether you have a right to forcibly defend your property against the trespass of others depends on a number of factors, but that one of those factors is not a preference or set of preferences with regard to the race of the person trespassing.
Not true, really. If I have a sign on my property that says "All Irish will be shot for trespassing" the warning is clear, and for an Irishman to set foot on my property after said full disclosure is a clear act of initiating aggression (and one I am likely to take as threatening my safety, as evidence of the posted warning). Full knowlege of the consequences are imparted to that individual, so no one is being defrauded.
Why do you think it is wrong for one to shoot another person for trespassing on one's property if there is full disclosure? Or more specifically, what are those "number of factors" you referred to?
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Under the current rules of property we have in the U.S., of course not. What makes you think I believe this? There's no reason, in principle, that a society couldn't agree to a property system like this one, though. I think it would be rather intracatable, FWIW.
It was used to point out your flaw in thinking of land ownership as the be all and end all of property ownership.
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I don't believe in self-ownership. I don't see why the onus is on me to show that I'm anything more than my body. Articulate why it is that you think there is some other thing (a "mind," a "soul," whatever) and why it stands in a relationship to the body at least roughly analogous to other relationships that we call "ownership."
What controls your body? What is that entity that is utilizing the scarce resource that is your body (and yes, it is a scarce resource)? It is clear that "you" (whether that is the sum of your body + mind/soul/ego/etc or "just your body") are autonomous. "You" are controlling your body, "you" are typing your argument, so
you are exclusively exercising control over
your body. How you can call this anything other than self-ownership, I do not know.
In fact, the very fact that you are engaged in argumentation right now presupposes that you at least implicitly recognize that you have exclusive control over the scarce resource of your body. To argue otherwise is to engage in a performative contradiction. Afterall, you cannot logically be both exercising exclusive use and control of your body and at the same time NOT be exercising exclusive use and control over it, can you?
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With regard to "right," this is assuming the conclusion.
Hogwash.
Even his Highness Grand Imperial Poobah Lord Obama doesn't have exclusive control over your body or actions. The only entity that can be said to possess that is "you."
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Such as? And if you admit that they're just assumptions (and don't have an independent rational justification), why are you so quick to think that there aren't alternate models that either avoid or render null whatever these logical absurdities you're worried about are.
Because there are only two logical alternatives if people do not possess self-ownership:
(1) Either everyone owns an equal amount of everyone else or "Universal Other-ownership"
(2) Partial Ownership of One Group by Another - a system of rule by one class over another. This isn't, by definition, a universal ethic because it states that one class of people do not have the right of self-ownership but another class does.
(1) is a universal ethic, but it would require everyone to get permission from everyone else on earth in order to do anything. Surely you can see the problems with this, no?
Also, as I've said before, arguing against self-ownership leads to a performative contradiction.
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Originally Posted by Nichlemn
I'm pretty sure that nobody ever "sees" anyone with a different ideology "own" someone competent who shares ideology in a debate.
To put it a different way: I've yet to see anyone make a valid argument for the existence of the state.