Private property vs. Property as theft
04-05-2009
, 09:18 PM
So I was having a conversation with a poster from another forum about the right to private property and he asked why I thought I had a right to private property, and why I believed that the idea that "property is theft" is invalid, or at least that people who believed that to be the case do not have the right to impose that belief on me. My response was a kind of mish-mash of things I have read or heard, so I wondered if there is anything here which is incorrect could be expanded on by other posters.
"While no right actually exists of course, natural rights do exist and follow in natural, logical steps. I am the sole master of my body, I control my body, therefore I OWN my body. Now let us take the example of my voice. I am the only person who controls my voice, and my voice is unique to me. When I speak, I am responsible for the sound-waves that I produce, therefore I OWN those sound-waves. I own them because I created them, nobody else can create them, they are MINE, no one elses. I OWN my voice and my voice is created from my labour, therefore I OWN the fruits of my labour. If I pick an apple from an ownerless tree, it follows that it is now MY apple, since the apple would be useless without the labour I put into obtaining it.
The difference between my belief in property rights and the belief of someone who believe that property is theft is that if I CHOOSE to exert my individual property rights, no-one has the right to force me to act otherwise. Ideas similar to as communism can and would form under this system - but people would have the right to not be FORCED to hand over their individual property rights. You cannot sign a contract for someone else and enforce it with violence. This is all about individualism - I have whatever rights I choose to have - as long as they do not intrude on others rights. Property rights are of course a construct of humanity, but they are a natural supposition. I own the fruits of my labour. If someone else believes private property is theft, they have the right to believe that, but I also have the right to defend what I believe and that is the right to private property."
"While no right actually exists of course, natural rights do exist and follow in natural, logical steps. I am the sole master of my body, I control my body, therefore I OWN my body. Now let us take the example of my voice. I am the only person who controls my voice, and my voice is unique to me. When I speak, I am responsible for the sound-waves that I produce, therefore I OWN those sound-waves. I own them because I created them, nobody else can create them, they are MINE, no one elses. I OWN my voice and my voice is created from my labour, therefore I OWN the fruits of my labour. If I pick an apple from an ownerless tree, it follows that it is now MY apple, since the apple would be useless without the labour I put into obtaining it.
The difference between my belief in property rights and the belief of someone who believe that property is theft is that if I CHOOSE to exert my individual property rights, no-one has the right to force me to act otherwise. Ideas similar to as communism can and would form under this system - but people would have the right to not be FORCED to hand over their individual property rights. You cannot sign a contract for someone else and enforce it with violence. This is all about individualism - I have whatever rights I choose to have - as long as they do not intrude on others rights. Property rights are of course a construct of humanity, but they are a natural supposition. I own the fruits of my labour. If someone else believes private property is theft, they have the right to believe that, but I also have the right to defend what I believe and that is the right to private property."
04-05-2009
, 09:29 PM
Join Date: Jun 2006
Posts: 2,121
04-05-2009
, 09:37 PM
Yeah, I've heard that too. Sorry for not mentioning it in the OP, but he wasn't arguing that all property is theft, just private property. He is arguing the communist stance of people taking whatever they need and nothing more - group property. Which is surely logically inconsistent because for that to be the case everyone would have to consent to everything which was taken which would be impossible?
04-05-2009
, 09:46 PM
Quote:
So I was having a conversation with a poster from another forum about the right to private property and he asked why I thought I had a right to private property, and why I believed that the idea that "property is theft" is invalid, or at least that people who believed that to be the case do not have the right to impose that belief on me. My response was a kind of mish-mash of things I have read or heard, so I wondered if there is anything here which is incorrect could be expanded on by other posters.
"While no right actually exists of course, natural rights do exist and follow in natural, logical steps. I am the sole master of my body, I control my body, therefore I OWN my body. Now let us take the example of my voice. I am the only person who controls my voice, and my voice is unique to me. When I speak, I am responsible for the sound-waves that I produce, therefore I OWN those sound-waves. I own them because I created them, nobody else can create them, they are MINE, no one elses. I OWN my voice and my voice is created from my labour, therefore I OWN the fruits of my labour. If I pick an apple from an ownerless tree, it follows that it is now MY apple, since the apple would be useless without the labour I put into obtaining it.
"While no right actually exists of course, natural rights do exist and follow in natural, logical steps. I am the sole master of my body, I control my body, therefore I OWN my body. Now let us take the example of my voice. I am the only person who controls my voice, and my voice is unique to me. When I speak, I am responsible for the sound-waves that I produce, therefore I OWN those sound-waves. I own them because I created them, nobody else can create them, they are MINE, no one elses. I OWN my voice and my voice is created from my labour, therefore I OWN the fruits of my labour. If I pick an apple from an ownerless tree, it follows that it is now MY apple, since the apple would be useless without the labour I put into obtaining it.
04-05-2009
, 09:56 PM
You can own sound waves in the sense that a singer owns his voice. Sound waves are a product of his labour (of the movement of his lungs and voice box). They are also a unique product of his labour, no one can replicate those sound waves like he can. If he is the person responsible for producing these unique sound waves, then it follows that he owns that song. It is his property and he can choose to use it as he wishes. It's kinda a hard concept to explain and maybe the picking an apple one is better - but it is basically illustrating that ownership is derived from the application of labour to something - air, an apple, land etc.
04-05-2009
, 10:09 PM
Quote:
This is how property as a natural, logical right was explained to me.
You can own sound waves in the sense that a singer owns his voice. Sound waves are a product of his labour (of the movement of his lungs and voice box). They are also a unique product of his labour, no one can replicate those sound waves like he can. If he is the person responsible for producing these unique sound waves, then it follows that he owns that song. It is his property and he can choose to use it as he wishes. It's kinda a hard concept to explain and maybe the picking an apple one is better - but it is basically illustrating that ownership is derived from the application of labour to something - air, an apple, land etc.
You can own sound waves in the sense that a singer owns his voice. Sound waves are a product of his labour (of the movement of his lungs and voice box). They are also a unique product of his labour, no one can replicate those sound waves like he can. If he is the person responsible for producing these unique sound waves, then it follows that he owns that song. It is his property and he can choose to use it as he wishes. It's kinda a hard concept to explain and maybe the picking an apple one is better - but it is basically illustrating that ownership is derived from the application of labour to something - air, an apple, land etc.
How is owning an apple, a speech, and yourself all the same concept?
04-05-2009
, 10:22 PM
That you own yourself is self evident. You are in sole control of yourself, no else is or has an logical or moral right to control you, so you own your body, thoughts etc. Owning an apple and owning a speech is similar because you apply the same concept - because you have applied your labour to something - you have laboured to make use of a resource which previously was going unused (the manipulating the air, picking the apple from the ownerless tree), and it follows that you now own what you have produced.
04-06-2009
, 01:13 AM
Join Date: Jun 2006
Posts: 2,121
Quote:
Yeah, I've heard that too. Sorry for not mentioning it in the OP, but he wasn't arguing that all property is theft, just private property. He is arguing the communist stance of people taking whatever they need and nothing more - group property. Which is surely logically inconsistent because for that to be the case everyone would have to consent to everything which was taken which would be impossible?
04-06-2009
, 09:27 AM
This little article is great: Socialist Calculation vs Magical Monsters
There is a difference.
To oversimplify an article by Kinsella on Hoppe's Argumentation Ethics:
Only oneself can have direct control over their body, and others can only have indirect control over another person. Likewise, we can only have indirect control over the apple.
Anyhow, that has been explained a million times here.
This is a good article, Objectivist Law Prof Mossoff on Copyright; or, the Misuse of Labor, Value, and Creation Metaphors
Kinsella even responds to comments, but it gets too much into IP.
Another fallacious argument is whatever that was about something being renewable.
Economic Calculation in the Socialist Commonwealth
Quote:
How is owning an apple, a speech, and yourself all the same concept?
To oversimplify an article by Kinsella on Hoppe's Argumentation Ethics:
Only oneself can have direct control over their body, and others can only have indirect control over another person. Likewise, we can only have indirect control over the apple.
Quote:
Obviously, there are other issues that could be explored here: when and exactly how does a child homestead himself, or reach adulthood; and exceptions to the prima facie case, such as where a person commits a crime which in some sense severs his objective link or transfers it to his victim (creating a "superior" link on behalf of the victim), so that the victim has the right to retaliate. But it should be clear that what distinguishes libertarianism from all competing political theories is its scrupulous adherence — informed by sound, i.e., Austrian, economics — to the idea that property rights in scarce resources must be assigned to the person with the best, objective link to the resource in question; and that, in the case of bodies, the link is the natural connection to and relationship between the occupant and the body, while for all other resources, the objective link is first use.
This is a good article, Objectivist Law Prof Mossoff on Copyright; or, the Misuse of Labor, Value, and Creation Metaphors
Kinsella even responds to comments, but it gets too much into IP.
Quote:
This assumption sneaks into or lies at the basis of many fallacious notions of property rights, such as the idea that there is a right to a reputation because it can have value. It ties in with the (especially Randian) notion of "creation" as the source of rights, and the confusing admixture of the "labor" idea, when we talk about using our labor to "create" things of "value" (like reputations, inventions, works of art). Actually, if you labor transform a homesteaded thing into something more valuable, you own the resulting valuable thing not because you created it; not because you own your labor--but because you were the first user of the underlying property that was transformed. Yes, your creative labor made the object that you owned more valuable to you (presumably, ex ante, as this was your goal), but it is not a source of ownership. Therefore, it's a non-sequitur to leap from these observations and say that you own anything you create that has value.
Quote:
It is an illusion to imagine that in a socialist state calculation in natura can take the place of monetary calculation. Calculation in natura, in an economy without exchange, can embrace consumption goods only; it completely fails when it comes to dealing with goods of a higher order. And as soon as one gives up the conception of a freely established monetary price for goods of a higher order, rational production becomes completely impossible. Every step that takes us away from private ownership of the means of production and from the use of money also takes us away from rational economics.
It is easy to overlook this fact, considering that the extent to which socialism is in evidence among us constitutes only a socialistic oasis in a society with monetary exchange, which is still a free society to a certain degree. In one sense we may agree with the socialists' assertion which is otherwise entirely untenable and advanced only as a demagogic point, to the effect that the nationalization and municipalization of enterprise is not really socialism, since these concerns in their business organizations are so much dependent upon the environing economic system with its free commerce that they cannot be said to partake today of the really essential nature of a socialist economy. In state and municipal undertakings technical improvements are introduced because their effect in similar private enterprises, domestic or foreign, can be noticed, and because those private industries which produce the materials for these improvements give the impulse for their introduction. In these concerns the advantages of reorganization can be established, because they operate within the sphere of a society based upon private ownership of the means of production and upon the system of monetary exchange, being thus capable of computation and account. This state of affairs, however, could not be obtained in the case of socialist concerns operating in a purely socialistic environment.
Without economic calculation there can be no economy . Hence, in a socialist state wherein the pursuit of economic calculation is impossible, there can be--in our sense of the term--no economy whatsoever. In trivial and secondary matters rational conduct might still be possible, but in general it would be impossible to speak of rational production any more. There would be no means of determining what was rational, and hence it is obvious that production could never be directed by economic consider ations. What this means is clear enough, apart from its effects on the supply of commodities. Rational conduct would be divorced from the very ground which is its proper domain. Would there, in fact, be any such thing as rational conduct at all, or, indeed, such a thing as rationality and logic in thought itself? Historically, human rationality is a development of economic life. Could it then be obtained when divorced therefrom?
..
It is easy to overlook this fact, considering that the extent to which socialism is in evidence among us constitutes only a socialistic oasis in a society with monetary exchange, which is still a free society to a certain degree. In one sense we may agree with the socialists' assertion which is otherwise entirely untenable and advanced only as a demagogic point, to the effect that the nationalization and municipalization of enterprise is not really socialism, since these concerns in their business organizations are so much dependent upon the environing economic system with its free commerce that they cannot be said to partake today of the really essential nature of a socialist economy. In state and municipal undertakings technical improvements are introduced because their effect in similar private enterprises, domestic or foreign, can be noticed, and because those private industries which produce the materials for these improvements give the impulse for their introduction. In these concerns the advantages of reorganization can be established, because they operate within the sphere of a society based upon private ownership of the means of production and upon the system of monetary exchange, being thus capable of computation and account. This state of affairs, however, could not be obtained in the case of socialist concerns operating in a purely socialistic environment.
Without economic calculation there can be no economy . Hence, in a socialist state wherein the pursuit of economic calculation is impossible, there can be--in our sense of the term--no economy whatsoever. In trivial and secondary matters rational conduct might still be possible, but in general it would be impossible to speak of rational production any more. There would be no means of determining what was rational, and hence it is obvious that production could never be directed by economic consider ations. What this means is clear enough, apart from its effects on the supply of commodities. Rational conduct would be divorced from the very ground which is its proper domain. Would there, in fact, be any such thing as rational conduct at all, or, indeed, such a thing as rationality and logic in thought itself? Historically, human rationality is a development of economic life. Could it then be obtained when divorced therefrom?
..
04-06-2009
, 09:50 AM
Quote:
I don't really understand your point. How could someone not own their voice?
The rationale would be that the owner of the computer has laboured on the computer to produce those voice waves, so his application of labour is inextricably linked to his ownership of those waves. In the instance of a man singing - the resource (his voice) is finite, unique. When a computer can reproduce that sound - it's ownership is passed on to whoever used the computer to create the sound, since now anyone with a computer can reproduce that sound and own it.
That you own yourself is self evident. You are in sole control of yourself, no else is or has an logical or moral right to control you, so you own your body, thoughts etc. Owning an apple and owning a speech is similar because you apply the same concept - because you have applied your labour to something - you have laboured to make use of a resource which previously was going unused (the manipulating the air, picking the apple from the ownerless tree), and it follows that you now own what you have produced.
The rationale would be that the owner of the computer has laboured on the computer to produce those voice waves, so his application of labour is inextricably linked to his ownership of those waves. In the instance of a man singing - the resource (his voice) is finite, unique. When a computer can reproduce that sound - it's ownership is passed on to whoever used the computer to create the sound, since now anyone with a computer can reproduce that sound and own it.
That you own yourself is self evident. You are in sole control of yourself, no else is or has an logical or moral right to control you, so you own your body, thoughts etc. Owning an apple and owning a speech is similar because you apply the same concept - because you have applied your labour to something - you have laboured to make use of a resource which previously was going unused (the manipulating the air, picking the apple from the ownerless tree), and it follows that you now own what you have produced.
04-06-2009
, 10:31 AM
How do you define ownership then bobman?
Remember NIMN asked if anything was incorrect, and I think introducing the word morality to justify ownership as a starting point is wrong (I am not perfect at explaining this stuff too).
Like I wrote above, the criteria for ownership is different for 'a body' or oneself and objects that are typically thought of as property, where we use the Homesteading Principle.
Again, we shouldn't say "moral right" but that we have "undercut" (as the socialist would say it) another's possible claim of "first use" when we have homesteaded the apple orchard.
If you just walk along the road and pick an apple from an unowned tree, you don't own the tree. That is sort of like the irrational leap Marxism attempts to make.
Remember NIMN asked if anything was incorrect, and I think introducing the word morality to justify ownership as a starting point is wrong (I am not perfect at explaining this stuff too).
Like I wrote above, the criteria for ownership is different for 'a body' or oneself and objects that are typically thought of as property, where we use the Homesteading Principle.
Quote:
Specifically, you're implying that, once you pick your apple, you cut off anyone's moral right to that apple. Why? (I think a lot of people would claim that you own the whole tree, which is even more problematic.)
If you just walk along the road and pick an apple from an unowned tree, you don't own the tree. That is sort of like the irrational leap Marxism attempts to make.
Quote:
Whatever I choose, I choose either as a consumer's good (a first-order good) or as a producer's good (a higher-order good). Utilitarianism of any sort regards morality as a producer's good, a means of producing happiness; but indirect utilitarianism maintains, in effect, that the most effective way to promote happiness is to treat morality as if it were a consumer’s good, even though it isn’t one. But is it really possible to adopt the attitude that indirect utilitarianism recommends? When I choose morality "as if" it were a consumer's good, either it really becomes a consumer's good for me, or else it remains a producer’s good and I am only pretending. There is no third possibility.
Suppose it does become a consumer's good for me. In that case, I am no longer a consistent utilitarian, since in my actions I reveal a preference for morality as an end in itself. [Utilitarians sometimes recommend] treating a principle as inherently binding at the everyday level while recognizing its contingency on utilitarian outcomes at the reflective level …. but doesn’t this just amount to advising us to form inconsistent preferences? And if the preferences on which I ordinarily act do treat morality as a consumer's good, in what sense can it be said that I really regard it as a producer's good? On the other hand, suppose that morality remains a producer's good for me. Every action embodies a means-end scheme … Even when I choose to act morally, my choice commits me to rejecting morality in counterfactual situations … where immorality would be a more effective means to the end, and this commitment is a blot on my character now. (Hence the Kantian insistence on the importance of maxims rather than actions.)
It has often been claimed that indirect utilitarianism is unstable, and must collapse either into direct utilitarianism on the one hand or into "rules fetishism" on the other. This can be interpreted as a psychological claim about the likely results of trying to maintain a utilitarian attitude, in which case its truth or falsity is an empirical matter. By transposing the familiar stability objection into a praxeological key, however, what I’ve been trying to show is that indirect utilitarianism is not just causally but conceptually unstable. If I treat morality as a consumer's good, I must reject utilitarianism on pain of inconsistency; if I treat morality as a producer's good, I thereby exhibit a moral character or disposition that utilitarian considerations themselves condemn. But I must treat morality in one way or the other; hence utilitarianism is praxeologically self-defeating. The praxeologist cannot be a direct utilitarian, since praxeological reasoning itself shows us that the utilitarian’s goal depends on social cooperation, which in turn requires the kind of stable and consistent commitment to principles that a direct utilitarian cannot have. Nor can the praxeologist be an indirect utilitarian, since praxeological considerations force a choice between treating morality as a producer's good (in which case we're back with direct utilitarianism) and treating it as a consumer's good (in which case utilitarianism prescribes its own rejection). We may have utilitarian reasons for adopting moral commitments, but once we have adopted them, we can no longer regard them as resting on purely utilitarian foundations -- because so regarding them would alter their status as commitments.
Suppose it does become a consumer's good for me. In that case, I am no longer a consistent utilitarian, since in my actions I reveal a preference for morality as an end in itself. [Utilitarians sometimes recommend] treating a principle as inherently binding at the everyday level while recognizing its contingency on utilitarian outcomes at the reflective level …. but doesn’t this just amount to advising us to form inconsistent preferences? And if the preferences on which I ordinarily act do treat morality as a consumer's good, in what sense can it be said that I really regard it as a producer's good? On the other hand, suppose that morality remains a producer's good for me. Every action embodies a means-end scheme … Even when I choose to act morally, my choice commits me to rejecting morality in counterfactual situations … where immorality would be a more effective means to the end, and this commitment is a blot on my character now. (Hence the Kantian insistence on the importance of maxims rather than actions.)
It has often been claimed that indirect utilitarianism is unstable, and must collapse either into direct utilitarianism on the one hand or into "rules fetishism" on the other. This can be interpreted as a psychological claim about the likely results of trying to maintain a utilitarian attitude, in which case its truth or falsity is an empirical matter. By transposing the familiar stability objection into a praxeological key, however, what I’ve been trying to show is that indirect utilitarianism is not just causally but conceptually unstable. If I treat morality as a consumer's good, I must reject utilitarianism on pain of inconsistency; if I treat morality as a producer's good, I thereby exhibit a moral character or disposition that utilitarian considerations themselves condemn. But I must treat morality in one way or the other; hence utilitarianism is praxeologically self-defeating. The praxeologist cannot be a direct utilitarian, since praxeological reasoning itself shows us that the utilitarian’s goal depends on social cooperation, which in turn requires the kind of stable and consistent commitment to principles that a direct utilitarian cannot have. Nor can the praxeologist be an indirect utilitarian, since praxeological considerations force a choice between treating morality as a producer's good (in which case we're back with direct utilitarianism) and treating it as a consumer's good (in which case utilitarianism prescribes its own rejection). We may have utilitarian reasons for adopting moral commitments, but once we have adopted them, we can no longer regard them as resting on purely utilitarian foundations -- because so regarding them would alter their status as commitments.
04-06-2009
, 10:39 AM
ZN, I think of ownership as a social or legal recognition of certain rights. But that's not really important. My problem with what NIMN writes is that he asserts that various things that don't follow from his premises do follow or are self-evident. I think this is because he has an "I know it when I see it" definition of ownership.
04-06-2009
, 01:03 PM
Quote:
ZN, I think of ownership as a social or legal recognition of certain rights. But that's not really important.
I don't quite get the rest of what you were saying though. He understands some basic ideas and kind of mixed them together. I am just trying to get us on the right path anyhow.
I think you are referring to "positive rights" or legal/state positivism.
Can you actually define ownership or try to persuade me to reject the libertarian concept of self-ownership? Morality or utilitarianism can be left out of the philosophical justification for ownership, because it is self contradicting.
By believing in property rights and the non-agression principle, we hope that people act morally or in a way that produces the best result but we understand why a 3rd party (the state) is both unnecessary and detrimental. You can question the wisdom of another person for drinking alcohol or smoking crack, but not their right to do so.
To attempt that is tyranny, usually veiled in some pleasant, innocuous, and necessary-sounding concept like public goods and social security, or *gasp* representative democracy. The theoretical end of socialism is a faceless, "perfect" society with no room for change, reform, or innovation. It is anti-economy, anti-human, and of course truly utopian because it is impossible to acheive.
Classical liberalism, the culmination of ideological movements after monarchy brought about both capitalism and socialism. This new individualism, the freedom to dissent without fear of retribution, brought about civilization's productive advancements. Meanwhile, Marxism (or some bastard child like American socialist-corporatist rep. democracy) though fed off of the deeply seated tendency of those who had benefited from this new prosperity without having contributed to the growth (think wanting the apple picked for you and delivered), to give into authoritarianism.
So, many people might not recognize themselves as socialists but they all have their sails pointed in the wrong direction. Socialism is not compatible with an industrial age. It takes so little effort though to pull the lever every 4 years, drop your W-2 at HR Block every April, then sit back and enjoy your beautiful public roads.
How could it get any better? Inconceivable! Health care is your "right" folks, now hand over the loot. Re-accepting your 'citizenship' among humanity and embracing the only true political and economic philosophy doesn't require much more physical effort. In fact, you don't even need to trot down to the polling station 2.5 times per decade. It does take a mental effort though to look beyond what you have been taught to believe from childbirth.
The movement still advances ideas, but any answer you seek has probably been written about many times over. I personally feel liberated having gained a certain amount of understanding on these issues. That a stateless world is best is evident to me. I am open minded though I think the theory of self ownership and private property are pretty rock solid. By believing in state enforcement of positive rights, you immediately destroy any hope of equal rights and liberty.
04-06-2009
, 02:37 PM
Quote:
I don't really understand your point. How could someone not own their voice?
The rationale would be that the owner of the computer has laboured on the computer to produce those voice waves, so his application of labour is inextricably linked to his ownership of those waves. In the instance of a man singing - the resource (his voice) is finite, unique. When a computer can reproduce that sound - it's ownership is passed on to whoever used the computer to create the sound, since now anyone with a computer can reproduce that sound and own it.
The rationale would be that the owner of the computer has laboured on the computer to produce those voice waves, so his application of labour is inextricably linked to his ownership of those waves. In the instance of a man singing - the resource (his voice) is finite, unique. When a computer can reproduce that sound - it's ownership is passed on to whoever used the computer to create the sound, since now anyone with a computer can reproduce that sound and own it.
04-06-2009
, 04:00 PM
Quote:
I think I am reading this wrong so I'd appreciate if you could clear this up for me. I'm reading this as 'yes, you own your voice, but once someone can reproduce it in its exactness the ownership moves to them'. So I write and sing a song, then someone digitally or otherwise creates it exactly the same they now own it? Or is it that you own your voice but the guy owns the computer copy and they're completely seperate?
Edit: sorry if I'm not explaining this very well, it is kinda a hard thing to explain (partly why I made the OP in the first place). I think the main argument is that by combining your labour with a resource, you have created something new and you own that creation.
04-06-2009
, 05:22 PM
Are there no copyrights or patents in ACland? If someone comes up with an idea and uses their labor to create it but then you use your labor to create it and can sell it cheaper, whether or not you had the original idea doesn't matter? I realize you said intellectual property is a different subject and I don't want to derail, just curious.
04-06-2009
, 09:26 PM
Join Date: Sep 2005
Posts: 1,517
Quote:
So I was having a conversation with a poster from another forum about the right to private property and he asked why I thought I had a right to private property, and why I believed that the idea that "property is theft" is invalid, or at least that people who believed that to be the case do not have the right to impose that belief on me. My response was a kind of mish-mash of things I have read or heard, so I wondered if there is anything here which is incorrect could be expanded on by other posters.
"While no right actually exists of course, natural rights do exist and follow in natural, logical steps. I am the sole master of my body, I control my body, therefore I OWN my body. Now let us take the example of my voice. I am the only person who controls my voice, and my voice is unique to me. When I speak, I am responsible for the sound-waves that I produce, therefore I OWN those sound-waves. I own them because I created them, nobody else can create them, they are MINE, no one elses. I OWN my voice and my voice is created from my labour, therefore I OWN the fruits of my labour. If I pick an apple from an ownerless tree, it follows that it is now MY apple, since the apple would be useless without the labour I put into obtaining it.
The difference between my belief in property rights and the belief of someone who believe that property is theft is that if I CHOOSE to exert my individual property rights, no-one has the right to force me to act otherwise. Ideas similar to as communism can and would form under this system - but people would have the right to not be FORCED to hand over their individual property rights. You cannot sign a contract for someone else and enforce it with violence. This is all about individualism - I have whatever rights I choose to have - as long as they do not intrude on others rights. Property rights are of course a construct of humanity, but they are a natural supposition. I own the fruits of my labour. If someone else believes private property is theft, they have the right to believe that, but I also have the right to defend what I believe and that is the right to private property."
"While no right actually exists of course, natural rights do exist and follow in natural, logical steps. I am the sole master of my body, I control my body, therefore I OWN my body. Now let us take the example of my voice. I am the only person who controls my voice, and my voice is unique to me. When I speak, I am responsible for the sound-waves that I produce, therefore I OWN those sound-waves. I own them because I created them, nobody else can create them, they are MINE, no one elses. I OWN my voice and my voice is created from my labour, therefore I OWN the fruits of my labour. If I pick an apple from an ownerless tree, it follows that it is now MY apple, since the apple would be useless without the labour I put into obtaining it.
The difference between my belief in property rights and the belief of someone who believe that property is theft is that if I CHOOSE to exert my individual property rights, no-one has the right to force me to act otherwise. Ideas similar to as communism can and would form under this system - but people would have the right to not be FORCED to hand over their individual property rights. You cannot sign a contract for someone else and enforce it with violence. This is all about individualism - I have whatever rights I choose to have - as long as they do not intrude on others rights. Property rights are of course a construct of humanity, but they are a natural supposition. I own the fruits of my labour. If someone else believes private property is theft, they have the right to believe that, but I also have the right to defend what I believe and that is the right to private property."
My dream of the future, is an anarchist, free land where people can choose to live in different societies with different political themes. I understand how property works in ACland and I do think that is great and very efficient from a market standpoint, I just disagree philosophically with the idea that some corporation can own a river, or a forest, or the air.
I personally would prefer to live in a communal society where everyone appreciates the rivers and the forests as gifts from nature and wouldn't have the gall to claim ownership of our Earth, but I am all for the right of ACers to have a good time over in competition-land.
04-07-2009
, 12:08 AM
Quote:
Are there no copyrights or patents in ACland? If someone comes up with an idea and uses their labor to create it but then you use your labor to create it and can sell it cheaper, whether or not you had the original idea doesn't matter? I realize you said intellectual property is a different subject and I don't want to derail, just curious.
This link should explain why we oppose IP better. some parts:
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PhilProf: "I find it difficult to accept the following possibility, namely, that when, say, I publish a hardcover book with [Publisher], it would be just for someone else to reproduce the contents in a paper version and sell it at a very cheap rate, thereby undercutting my hardcover sales and destroying my paperback sales."
Walter Block: I fully understand this intuition and emotion, but I'm not sure how it's an argument. I would rather put the burden the other way around: the default position is that each person is entitled to do as he wishes with his own property--by which I mean his body and other homesteaded scarce resources he owns--so long as he does not violate the physical integrity -- invade -- others' property.
Block: BTW I think perhaps it may have been better had I used the economists' term "rivalrous" to characterize what I call "scarce" resources. By "scarcity" I do not just mean the relative plentifulness of similar types of goods; I mean a particular quality of a particular resource itself, whether it is the only one of its kind or whether there are millions of others. My Timex watch is scarce--rivalrous--simply because you and I cannot both control it/possess it at the same time--even if there are 100,000 other identical ones out there.
Walter Block: I fully understand this intuition and emotion, but I'm not sure how it's an argument. I would rather put the burden the other way around: the default position is that each person is entitled to do as he wishes with his own property--by which I mean his body and other homesteaded scarce resources he owns--so long as he does not violate the physical integrity -- invade -- others' property.
Block: BTW I think perhaps it may have been better had I used the economists' term "rivalrous" to characterize what I call "scarce" resources. By "scarcity" I do not just mean the relative plentifulness of similar types of goods; I mean a particular quality of a particular resource itself, whether it is the only one of its kind or whether there are millions of others. My Timex watch is scarce--rivalrous--simply because you and I cannot both control it/possess it at the same time--even if there are 100,000 other identical ones out there.
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It is similar to the phenomenon of artificial positive welfare and other rights enforced by the state diluting and infringing upon and invading natural, real, negative rights. Liberals think you can just add more positive rights to the roster without realizing--or minding--that this necessarily reduces the space of negative rights. Likewise, those who advocate any rights whatsoever in any non-scarce thing (like a novel-pattern, or method-of-doing-something) necessarily advocate reducing the space of rights that pertain to and protect the conflict-free use of scarce things. This is why I point out, for example, that assigning IP rights is a way of stealing property: if A owns a car and all of a sudden B gets exclusive right of a way-to-tune-car-engines because he thought of it first, then B becomes a partial co-owner of the car with A, since A's right to control over it is shared with B (in a particular way). The transfer of rights in the car from A to B is commonly called wealth redistribution, or, by principled libertarians who do not mince words, outright theft, or socialism. This is but one example of how recognizing rights in IP reduces rights in real things.
As for your question of how much land you homestead: I do not see that the problem is different if you look at it my way as opposed to the standard Lockean way. In both cases, there needs to be a decision made as to "how much" land you "mixed your labor with" (Locke) or "possessed" (in my case). In fact I would say that "mixing your labor" is a way of determining how much land you did use or possess--but it simply does not require one to say that you "own" your labor. It is confused to say this. You don't own your labor any more than you own your memories or love or emotions or knowledge or actions.
I simply do not see that this kind of reasoning can be applied to "artistic creations," for all the reasons specified above. As for a piece of gold you find it in the wild, if you appropriate it, then you have an objectively better claim to it than any possible contestant.
As for your question of how much land you homestead: I do not see that the problem is different if you look at it my way as opposed to the standard Lockean way. In both cases, there needs to be a decision made as to "how much" land you "mixed your labor with" (Locke) or "possessed" (in my case). In fact I would say that "mixing your labor" is a way of determining how much land you did use or possess--but it simply does not require one to say that you "own" your labor. It is confused to say this. You don't own your labor any more than you own your memories or love or emotions or knowledge or actions.
I simply do not see that this kind of reasoning can be applied to "artistic creations," for all the reasons specified above. As for a piece of gold you find it in the wild, if you appropriate it, then you have an objectively better claim to it than any possible contestant.
04-07-2009
, 12:45 AM
Quote:
So by your definition, you could claim the Mississippi river and argue to everyone else that hey, I am CHOOSING to exert my RIGHT to the Mississippi and you don't have the right to force me to act otherwise.
My dream of the future, is an anarchist, free land where people can choose to live in different societies with different political themes. I understand how property works in ACland and I do think that is great and very efficient from a market standpoint, I just disagree philosophically with the idea that some corporation can own a river, or a forest, or the air.
I personally would prefer to live in a communal society where everyone appreciates the rivers and the forests as gifts from nature and wouldn't have the gall to claim ownership of our Earth, but I am all for the right of ACers to have a good time over in competition-land.
My dream of the future, is an anarchist, free land where people can choose to live in different societies with different political themes. I understand how property works in ACland and I do think that is great and very efficient from a market standpoint, I just disagree philosophically with the idea that some corporation can own a river, or a forest, or the air.
I personally would prefer to live in a communal society where everyone appreciates the rivers and the forests as gifts from nature and wouldn't have the gall to claim ownership of our Earth, but I am all for the right of ACers to have a good time over in competition-land.
So it seems like an awful situation for artists. (Trust me, as an artist myself, I balked at this part of AC initially too.) Like Block mentions though:
Quote:
I never said that was "fine"; and who knows what institutions would arise to thwart this, much like software publsihers now have a variety of ways to capture rents from sale of software in a piracy-laden world.
I would again simply ask you: for you to stop the "Unjustness" you allude to, you would have to use state force against some third party who never contracted with you or your buyer. Why is that "just"? Prima facie, it's aggression.
I would again simply ask you: for you to stop the "Unjustness" you allude to, you would have to use state force against some third party who never contracted with you or your buyer. Why is that "just"? Prima facie, it's aggression.
Your dream is just that, a dream. Do you really want a million dollars or do you want the things it would bring? Do you really care if a corporation owns (realistically only parts of the bank of) the river or do you want the river clean and to have access to it? Leftist writing constantly demonizes corporations and presents illogical horror-scenarios. Like I said before, socialism is anti-human, anti-innovation, anti-individuality.
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Fifty years ago, Ludwig von Mises exposed the total inability of a planned, moneyless economy to operate above the most primitive level. For he showed that money-prices are indispensable for the rational allocation of all of our scarce resources — labor, land, and capital goods — to the fields and the areas where they are most desired by the consumers and where they could operate with greatest efficiency. The socialists conceded the correctness of Mises's challenge, and set about — in vain — to find a way to have a rational, market price system within the context of a socialist planned economy.
The Russians, after trying an approach to the communist moneyless economy in their "War Communism" shortly after the Bolshevik Revolution, reacted in horror as they saw the Russian economy heading to disaster. Even Stalin never tried to revive it, and since World War II the East European countries have seen a total abandonment of this communist ideal and a rapid move toward free markets, a free price system, profit-and-loss tests, and a promotion of consumer affluence.
It is no accident that it was precisely the economists in the Communist countries who led the rush away from communism, socialism, and central planning, and toward free markets. It is no crime to be ignorant of economics, which is, after all, a specialized discipline and one that most people consider to be a "dismal science." But it is totally irresponsible to have a loud and vociferous opinion on economic subjects while remaining in this state of ignorance. Yet this sort of aggressive ignorance is inherent in the creed of anarcho-communism.
The same comment can be made on the widespread belief, held by many New Leftists and by all anarcho-communists, that there is no longer need to worry about economics or production because we are supposedly living in a "post-scarcity" world, where such problems do not arise. But while our condition of scarcity is clearly superior to that of the cave-man, we are still living in a world of pervasive economic scarcity.
The Russians, after trying an approach to the communist moneyless economy in their "War Communism" shortly after the Bolshevik Revolution, reacted in horror as they saw the Russian economy heading to disaster. Even Stalin never tried to revive it, and since World War II the East European countries have seen a total abandonment of this communist ideal and a rapid move toward free markets, a free price system, profit-and-loss tests, and a promotion of consumer affluence.
It is no accident that it was precisely the economists in the Communist countries who led the rush away from communism, socialism, and central planning, and toward free markets. It is no crime to be ignorant of economics, which is, after all, a specialized discipline and one that most people consider to be a "dismal science." But it is totally irresponsible to have a loud and vociferous opinion on economic subjects while remaining in this state of ignorance. Yet this sort of aggressive ignorance is inherent in the creed of anarcho-communism.
The same comment can be made on the widespread belief, held by many New Leftists and by all anarcho-communists, that there is no longer need to worry about economics or production because we are supposedly living in a "post-scarcity" world, where such problems do not arise. But while our condition of scarcity is clearly superior to that of the cave-man, we are still living in a world of pervasive economic scarcity.
04-08-2009
, 02:07 PM
This has probably been asked before, but if IP is not valid unless under voluntary contractual agreements, then how would authors have incentives to write? How would inventors have incentives to work, if they knew that as soon as they came up with something great someone else could take their idea and mass produce it with no compensation to them.
04-08-2009
, 02:38 PM
pvn
Guest
Posts: n/a
Quote:
This has probably been asked before, but if IP is not valid unless under voluntary contractual agreements, then how would authors have incentives to write? How would inventors have incentives to work, if they knew that as soon as they came up with something great someone else could take their idea and mass produce it with no compensation to them.
04-08-2009
, 02:52 PM
Carpal \'Tunnel
Join Date: Aug 2005
Posts: 23,398
Quote:
How would inventors have incentives to work, if they knew that as soon as they came up with something great someone else could take their idea and mass produce it with no compensation to them.
04-08-2009
, 10:04 PM
Quote:
This has probably been asked before, but if IP is not valid unless under voluntary contractual agreements, then how would authors have incentives to write? How would inventors have incentives to work, if they knew that as soon as they came up with something great someone else could take their idea and mass produce it with no compensation to them.
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