Quote:
Originally Posted by Larry Legend
I dunno what "been with a lot of guys" is doing in that sentence. Seems like some type of ikes-think got-ya where the next 1-2 punch you claim I am like slut shaming or something and claim victory. I don't give a **** if the girl has slept with 0 guys or 2000.
What I am saying is that given these 2 sets of circumstances.
1. Girl claims she is raped by a man, she is a lesbian
2. Girl claims she is raped by a man, she is straight
That there is information in one of those circumstances that makes the man more likely to be guilty.
Kind of beating a dying horse here, but let's try some more of these:
1. Girl claims she is raped by a man, she has had consensual sex with ~100 guys by age 21
2. Girl claims she is raped by a man, she is married and has only had sex with her husband.
Would you say that "there is information in one of those circumstances that makes the man more likely to be guilty". If yes, then in a rape trial, do you think the accused should be allowed to bring up the fact that the victim had consensual sex w/ ~100 guys in the past?