Appreciate some thoughts on this hand please. CO is playing a 29/23 game with a 12% 3-bet%. I have less than 100 hands on him but he's also taken a few hits on the table and I had the impression there could have been some tilt in his game.
IPoker Network $100.00 No Limit Hold'em - 6 players
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CO: $101.50
BTN: $97.73
SB: $97.50
BB: $126.68
Hero (UTG): $141.12
MP: $191.10
Pre Flop: ($1.50) Hero is UTG with J

J
Hero raises to $3.50,
1 fold,
CO raises to $11,
3 folds, Hero calls $7.50
My image is probably a bit looser than is the norm at the table as I've been relentlessly iso-raising a loose player who's been doing a lot of calling and limping. So I think that despite my "strong" UTG open, he's raising a fairly wide range in position versus me. I decided to flat-call to keep his range as wide as possible on the flop.
Flop: ($23.50) 6

2

7
(2 players)
Hero checks,
CO bets $17.00, Hero calls $17
I like this flop as it doesn't IMO hit much of his range. I ponder a check-raise here - appreciate some thoughts on that? But again my thinking was that I need to keep his non-pair overcards in play. I'm not sure if my logic is sound here? He has a 77% C-bet and 100% c-bet(4) in a 3-bet pot. I note that he doesn't barrel the turn often though.
Turn: ($57.50) T
(2 players)
Hero checks,
CO bets $29.00 Now this is an interesting card as he does decide to barrel but at the same time I think his barreling range is wider that normal here with non-pair hands with one diamond. Possibly wishful thinking? Obviously his made flushes crush me and his over pairs with a diamond completely destroy me but are there enough draws to compensate? I stoved this range afterwards
equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 46.023% 45.23% 00.80% 995 17.50 { JJ+, AcKd, AdKc, AdKh, AdKs, AhKd, AsKd, AsKh, AcQd, AdQc, AdQh, AdQs, AhQd, AsQd, AcJd, AdJc, AdJh, AdJs, AhJd, AsJd, KcQd, KdQc, KdQh, KdQs, KhQd, KhQs, KsQd, KsQh, KcJd, KdJc, KdJh, KdJs, KhJd, KsJd, QJo }
Hand 1: 53.977% 53.18% 00.80% 1170 17.50 { JdJh }
Thoughts? Do we fold/jam?