Hey,

let's say we have 88 and the board is
56K X

Assume villain's range is 34,78 and KQ. Villain FOLDS all his draws to a half potted 2nd barrel. What do you do and how did you come to this conclusion?

Please start over. What positions, stack sizes (I'll asume 100BB eff) and what was the PF action. I take it we opened and got called.

43 isn't exactly in many villains PF ranges (even suited) so I assume villain is somewhat fishy? We need positions and PF tendencies etc. to see what we want to do on the flop first tbh. Did we valuebet because he'll call with all sorts of Ax type hands and whatnot or did we bet to protect? I assume we didn't bet to purely bluff because it would be pretty bad with our hand and the question if we want to barrell would answer itself (yes, fire 3 to fold out Kx-) :P

Also note that his 78 combos are pretty reduced. If I bet this flop it's usually because I assume I'll get called by Ax hands etc. and thus the question is do we valuebet turn or checkback and bluffcatch river or checkback and valuebet river.

lol vaguest question ever...u belong at 2nl imo gl

you didn't really put villain on a range... more like 3 exact hands. If I know exactly that he has 34, 67, KQ, i think i can barrel him off all of these hands easily regardless of my holding, lol.

we'd need a lot more information than this to know what the best course of action to take is. i think clowntable laid it out nicely.

Guys, it's a math problem that im trying to figure out using some relation between combinations thus using these unrealistic scenario. Why the heck do i write assume. Just assume the facts given.

Not sure what u mean

Ok given assumptions overbet turn; shove river = fold out entire range readless usually