I am regular at this particular "mini" casino and have played with the villain a bunch. The villain likes to cbet and barrel the turn a LOT in uncontested pots, and will from time to time put two bets in with air. His flop/turn cbets in uncontested pots are ALWAYS the same amount.

Dynamics and history on the day of: We are both deep - I have 400ish and he has me barely covered, we are the biggest stacks at the table at this point. Before this hand came up we were joking around (for an hour or so) about someone making the $65 bet into some random spot (I think this came out of 42 being the answer to meaning of life - so we were saying that 65 is the new 42 etc etc...)

The hand (9handed 1-2NL): Hero ($400) with Ac7d in the SB

Villain ($450) limps UTG for $2
Hero calls $1
BB checks the option
(There are 6ppl in the pot - pot size $12)

Flop: Jc5c4c
Hero checks
BB checks
Villain announces that this is the spot for THE $65 bet and bets it!

Action folds around to Hero... tanks for a min... calls

Turn: 6d (pot is $142)

(we are HU and hero is first to act)
Hero???

Looking for best lines to take? I am pretty sure villain does not have a flush, his range could be between a set to an overpair with a FD - this includes most two pairs, all top pairs med/high kickers with a FD, and OPs with a FD.

Aside from the fact you should have never called the $65 on the flop, just give up that $2 you put in the pot and move on. But the only option left now is to c/f and be done with it.

Disregard the $65 bet as it could have been a spew (due to the joking around and his promise to make that size bet at some point in time)...

How can I possibly check-fold an OESD and a nut FD with Ace as a possible out as well.... I am getting 38% (not including the implied odds) equity after the turn vs any one pair hand with a FD. He could have KcJx, QcJx, TcJx, KcKx, QcQx, TcTx, AxJx, QxQx, KxKx - none of these hands have me really bad.

The reason why I called on the flop was because we were deep and I was playing my SB, so I could have a small flush (or a big one).... so on the turn I was planning to make a move... and even if I were to get called I was at least 38% against a lot of his range.

I am most interested in discussion on the bet size that would make most of the range outlined above fold. Just trying to see what my hand looks like to the villain, because this is a very wet board and if I flatted on the flop then I have to have most of his range killed a lot of the time(at least that's what I think it would look like to him) - assume that a villain never has a flush or a made straight in this spot, but could easily have any 2pair/set hand, and one pair hand with a FD including OP (except AA) being the most likely holding.