This situation comes up a lot at 1/2 PLO, especially if a few good shortstackers are playing..... rage

I worked out we need >42% equity vs villains range if we raise/shove over his 3bet, when the stack is 20bb.

If we flat a 20bb 3bet, we only need 26% equity on the flop to call the inevitable shove.



Poker Stars $200.00 Pot Limit Omaha Hi - 6 players
The Official 2+2 Hand Converter Powered By DeucesCracked.com

CO: $70.45
BTN: $575.15
SB: $111.70
BB: $178.00
UTG: $305.40
Hero (MP): $344.35

Pre Flop: ($3.00) Hero is MP with Q A 8 9
1 fold, Hero raises to $7, CO raises to $24, 3 folds, Hero calls $17

for this hand:

12% 56.34%
AsQ8s9 43.66%

Do we flat and get it in when we have any piece of the flop? What about with weaker hands and is it ever correct to fold preflop?

bump

Think about it this way:


To recreate this particular hand:


Villain (100bb) raises to $7 , you 3bet AsQs8c9d to $20 (misclick) and now villain 4bets you to $68.

Villain says: I do this with 12% of hands and I will ship any flop.



What would you do?


[So effective stack = 100 bb]

OK I see what you did there


In your example, if villain is 4betting 12%, then I would flat the 4bet and call flops where I have 31% equity vs top 12%.

There should be enough flops to make this +EV.

correct?

I agree.

If the shortstack in your hand ships all flops in position, which he will do, imo.

Is there any calculators out there who can tell us how many flops we hit hard enough to stack off?

Propokertools.

when you plug it into ppt and hit graph it shows that you'll have 26% equity on about 70% of flops. I don't understand much more than that yet...