Hi Matt,
don't understand p148 when you write the following equation when you consider 80% equity for value & 20% for bluff,
0.8X+0.2(1-X)=0.343
34,3% of your flop betting has to be bet for value on the turn and river right? but I don't see why these 34,3% are a combination of another value betting range like the equation state it.
I spent couple of hours to really understand but this chapter... I started to do calculations on my own. I started from the river and said:
75% bet size --> for the call : villain win 80%*(1-X)*1.75+20%*(X)*1.75- vilain loose 20%(1-X)*0.75-80%*X*0.75 and finally get lost