Why polarized ranges?
09-05-2020
, 06:09 PM
In some articles that i read i see tha author claiming that in some situations polarized ranges are more adequate than linear ranges, often not explaining why. In a quizz from same site (upswingpoker) this example is given:
The author says "hands like QJs and AJo really don't want a shove" in this situation, but how is it different to be shoved while having QJs or having a bluff? Wouldn't a strategy of folding the medium strength hands to shoves also work, and then there'd be no need to use complete bluffs. Only explanation i can think is that we'd rather call with those medium hands since they can flop very strong hands, is this correct?
The author says "hands like QJs and AJo really don't want a shove" in this situation, but how is it different to be shoved while having QJs or having a bluff? Wouldn't a strategy of folding the medium strength hands to shoves also work, and then there'd be no need to use complete bluffs. Only explanation i can think is that we'd rather call with those medium hands since they can flop very strong hands, is this correct?
09-05-2020
, 09:47 PM
