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"Poor versus his flop three-betting range" "Poor versus his flop three-betting range"

12-16-2013 , 10:40 PM
I'm reading Building a Bankroll - How to Achieve Long Term Success at Online Poker by Pawel Nazarewicz.

In one section of the book he is covering a hand. The hand history is as follows:

Quote:
MP2 opens to $0.85 and I flat in MP3 with A A. Everyone else folds. The flop comes Q J 4. MP2 c-bets $1.50 into $2.05 and I call. The turn brings the 2. MP2 checks, I fire $3.25 into $5.05, and he folds.
Later on, Nazarewicz analyzes the hand and at some point mentions:

Quote:
I don't like raising this flop since I do very well versus his c-betting range but poorly versus his flop three-betting range.
I'm a little confused about this line. Is he saying that he is making the call because if he instead chooses to raise and villain 3bets then he will have to fold because he is likely beat?

Sorry if this makes sense and I look like an idiot - this is a new concept to me, something intriguing that I haven't really thought of before and I'm curious to see if I have a correct understanding.

Thanks!
"Poor versus his flop three-betting range" Quote
12-16-2013 , 11:10 PM
He's saying that when he calls the cbet, he faces a pretty wide villain range (anything the villain might cbet here, including a lot of bluffs), and AA do great against that range.

If he raises and the villain reraises, then his AA would be in pretty bad shape (facing likely QJ, QQ, JJ, 44, at worst a combo draw, which is less likely because he holds A which blocks out villain's nfd combos).

Does he have a read that this particular villain is solid?
"Poor versus his flop three-betting range" Quote
12-17-2013 , 12:29 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by johnnieYX
He's saying that when he calls the cbet, he faces a pretty wide villain range (anything the villain might cbet here, including a lot of bluffs), and AA do great against that range.

If he raises and the villain reraises, then his AA would be in pretty bad shape (facing likely QJ, QQ, JJ, 44, at worst a combo draw, which is less likely because he holds A which blocks out villain's nfd combos).

Does he have a read that this particular villain is solid?
Good post, pretty much nailed everything. Though raising against a lot of villains will be better, this post explains the rationale behind flatting very well.
"Poor versus his flop three-betting range" Quote

      
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