Ok, so I understand that stacking off on the flop with top set in PLO is usually ok, but I'm having problems with situations where there's money behind and an obvious draw hits on the turn. For example:
***** Hand History for Game 58824517 *****
€0.05/€0.10 Omaha (Pot Limit)
Seat 1: Btn €9.70
Seat 8: SB €12.90
Seat 9: BB €11.15
Seat 10: Hero €27.20
** Dealing Down Cards **
Dealt to Hero [ J

J

3

T

]
Hero calls €0.10 , 1 fold, SB raises €0.35, BB calls €0.30, Hero calls €0.30
** Dealing Flop ** : [ T

J

3

]
SB bets €1.15, BB calls €1.15,
Hero raises €5.75, SB calls €4.60, BB calls €4.60
** Dealing Turn ** : [ A

]
SB checks, BB bets €5 all-in,
Hero calls €5, SB calls €5
** Dealing River ** : [ 7

]
SB checks,
Hero checks
Main Pot: €31.80 | Rake: €1.65
I’m not sure why I limped pre, but I’m assuming flop action is standard.
On the turn, I’m completely certain that at least one of the villains has hit the broadway straight. I’m getting close to 5.5-to-1 to call the turn bet (assuming I’m certain that SB will also call). As I hold a T and a 3, I have a total of 8 outs to quads or a boat, giving me exactly 5.5-to-1. So while the turn call is ok, folding would not have been a mistake either. Is this correct?
I’m getting the odds to call largely because there’s so much money in the pot. If there was only one villain in exactly the same scenario, I wouldn’t have been getting more than 2-to-1 on the turn, needing 5.5-to-1. Even if I didn’t hold blockers to my own hand, I’d need 4.5-to-1. So in this case folding would be correct, as long as I’m certain villain has the straight?
Right?
Thx
P.S. Sorry if Theory or SSPLO forums would be more appropriate.