Two quetion on odds if you don't mind.


1) I keep hearing how if you have 2:1 odds you should call any bet with any two cards. Why is this? Is it only preflop or postflop too (as long as you have some kind of hand).

2) Not sure if the answer is the same as for the above question but I saw a clip from the WSOP (Duhammel vs Ngyen). It was set over set (Duhammel had Jacks vs Ace) and when his opponent moved all-in the commentator said Duhammel doen't have the odds to call. Why is this?


Thanks

1. That's absolute hogwash and you should ignore it. You always need to consider your hand's equity against whatever range you assign to your opponent. A bet that gives you 2:1 means that you need 33% equity, bearing in mind that unless it's the river, you might have to put more money in on later streets.

2. Unless I'm missing something, I think you're getting one hand mixed up with another. The only AA vs. JJ hand I could find for Duhamel was him vs. Affleck. It wasn't set over set. Norman Chad said Duhamel wasn't getting the right price because he only had 20% equity, while he was getting almost 3:1 to call. While Chad's only considering his actual hand, maybe Duhamel thinks Affleck's range is a bit wider and contains a few semibluffs, which could push the decision closer to a call.

You are right, I got my hands mixed up. Your explanation mixed up ratio and odds so let's straighten them out for my pea-brain.

Percentage:
Duhammel had 20%. It was 25% to call so his chance of hitting was lower than what's on offer (which backs up my understanding that if using percentage then the odds on offer have to be lower than yours).

Ratio:
He was 4:1 and so would need odds of 4:1 or higher (5:1, 6:1, 7:1 etc) in order to be a good call.

Right?