Hey. I'm not quite sure about these chop situations.
Villain in this hand is playing 24/12 with 4% 3-bet.
I'm going to assume that his range is TT 88 and undefined amount of A-highs.
Let's simplify it so that there is no rake. If he has A-high and we chop, we win 15.5$ right?
So I solved for the breakeven point. Result: x = ~9.3
Then doing the equation
Can anyone verify that what I did here was correct?