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12-05-2009 , 06:12 PM
NLHE, Calling a bet on the turn with a draw:

The way i understand it, when calculating implied odds, we have to multiply the amount to call by the odds against us hitting to find the total we need to win. So if its $3 to call, the pot is $8 including villains bet, we hit our hand 5:1, so we can do $3 times 5 and we find we need to win a total of $15 to break even. There's already $8 in pot so we need to get $7 more from villain if we hit to break even.

What i'm not sure of is, the river has a $11 pot in this case, but we still need $7 more from villain, is this correct? Or do we also count the $3 we put in on the turn, meaning we only need $4 more from villain?
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12-05-2009 , 07:09 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by nyyy1927
What i'm not sure of is, the river has a $11 pot in this case, but we still need $7 more from villain, is this correct?
Yes, that's correct.

You're risking your $3, hoping to get $15 out of the villain's stack. He's already put in $8, so he needs to put in another $7 for your call to be profitable.

Quote:
Or do we also count the $3 we put in on the turn, meaning we only need $4 more from villain?
No. You can't count your $3 call as part of your winnings. It was your money already, and would still be in your stack if you'd chosen to fold. You get it back when you hit, obviously, but it's hardly part of your winnings.
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12-05-2009 , 08:05 PM
Thanks. That's what i thought but a pro was explaining it the wrong way the other day which got me thinking i might have it wrong.
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12-05-2009 , 08:40 PM
"What i'm not sure of is, the river has a $11 pot in this case, but we still need $7 more from villain, is this correct?"


This is correct.
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