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Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling?

03-09-2010 , 12:50 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by stickychips15
Player A pushes All in
Player B calls
Player A says "You can have it"
Player B throws his cards to the dealer

Player A says to the dealer to pass him the pot, since Player B hand touched the muck and he still has his cards
Player B argue that Player A declared that his hand is dead

Who is the legal winner?
this is a bit tricky. if cards are retrievable, cards speak. else we table the beter's hand, and if it's bajunky, caller gets 100% of the pot. if the hand has decent showdown value, chopped pot imo. or at least that's how it should be.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 12:54 PM
I saw a similar scenario happen, but the one player's cards were unretrievable. Angler's hand ruled dead. It was chopped. Everyone bitched.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 12:59 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by NOSUP4U
Just from a technical standpoint, your interpretation here is wrong. The rules says to throw your hand away AND relinquish all interest. The AND means to do both things. You're interpreting it as an OR (to do one or the other)

Mark
I disagree, kind of. I'm not interpreting it as an OR, rather, I'm interpreting "throw" loosely. I'm not intrepreting throw as in, you have to literally throw your hand in the muck or move it to the dealer, I'm interpreting "throw your hand away" as in, doing some sort of action that thus relinquishes your interest.

So, in my opinion, the rule looks like this:

1) Do some action THAT
2) Relinquishes your interest.

That's the way I interpret it. [Shrug]
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 01:13 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Dealer-Guy
Player A's comment induced Player B to muck (which wasn't the best choice in this case) however considering Player A then demanded the pot, I'm not going to just give it to him.

IMO, this is no different than misrepresenting your hand to induce a muck by the other player.

If Player B's hand is retreivable, then Player B should be allowed to show his hand and Player A can either show or muck.

If I am the dealer, I call the floor, if I am flooring that day, I'm going to have a showdown and award the pot to the best hand.

Rule 1:

Management reserves the right to make decisions in the spirit of fairness, even if a strict interpretation of the rules may indicate a different ruling.
Dealer Guy has nailed it. This is the right call for the right reasons. In addition, Player A is cautioned that future statements of concession will be binding.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 01:19 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by stickychips15
Player A pushes All in
Player B calls
Player A says "You can have it"
Player B throws his cards to the dealer

Player A says to the dealer to pass him the pot, since Player B hand touched the muck and he still has his cards
Player B argue that Player A declared that his hand is dead

Who is the legal winner?
Hindsight being what it is, Player B should say thank you and wait for the dealer to push him the pot. In an ideal world, since Player B called, he should immediately table his hand. Player A is angleshooting by trying to claim the pot after B mucks, but Player B is as well for trying to scoop without showing a called hand.

I believe that "You can have it" is a forfeiture so Player B shot the winning angle.

This kind of BS is what is running off new players and giving the game a bad reputation. If the called hand must always be tabled, problem solved. Poker can and should be an honorable game.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 01:46 PM
If both hands are still live then the dealer cannot award the pot without seeing both holecards of at least 1 player. So B cannot win if he mucks and A still has live cards. Also, if A announces "you can have it", B shows a hand that A beats, and A flips up a better hand, then A still would win the pot.

"you can have it" is not a muck or fold, just a way to anounce "you caught me bluffing"
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 01:50 PM
"You can have it."

"Is that a fold, sir?"

This would be my automatic response (as a player) without giving it any thought whatsoever.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 01:52 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by stickychips15

Player A says "You can have it"
Player B throws his cards to the dealer

Player A says to the dealer to pass him the pot, since Player B hand touched the muck and he still has his cards
No "What are you doing?" or whatever.
Just a demand of the pot since his opponent's cards touched the muck.

Sure, he never intended to fake B into mucking his cards.

And I have a friend in the banking business in Nigeria I would like to introduce you to.

It was an angle 35 yrs ago when I started playing in cardrooms. It is still an angle.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 06:19 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by AngusThermopyle
No "What are you doing?" or whatever.
Just a demand of the pot since his opponent's cards touched the muck.

Sure, he never intended to fake B into mucking his cards.

And I have a friend in the banking business in Nigeria I would like to introduce you to.

It was an angle 35 yrs ago when I started playing in cardrooms. It is still an angle.
Hey, I know a government offical in Nigeria. Maybe your buddy and my buddy know each other?

Next time you're sending your buddy money, let's put the checks in the same envelope and save some postage, okay?
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 07:19 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by LawMess
From this reasoning, would you say everytime a player tries to get the other when heads up to show first, that is an angle shoot? For Player A here to be truely shooting an Angle, he would have had to have premeditately thought the following: "I am going to make an all in bluff with air on the river. If i do get called, i have to come up with something that sounds like i am giving up, but in reality i am going to keep my cards, and then if Player B mucks, rather than just showing his hand like most people would do heads up in a hand where i have cards left, i will try to call his hand dead"

Could he have been thinking this? Sure, anything is possible, but isn't just equally likely that Player B got caught in a bluff, and just reacted, saying you can have it, just like, you got it, or nice call, i got nothing, ect. Then when Player B mucks while Player A has a hand, he tries to scoop the pot on a technicality. I guess here it would depend on whether you view trying to cash in on a technicality as an angle shoot.
When a player gets called that player must either table his hand or muck his hand. He doesn't have an option to show second. So whenever the last aggressor tries to make the caller show his hand first, this is an attempt to bypass a rule and it's an angle shoot.

They're trying to get information without having to give away any information. It's a really minor angle shoot but I still view it as one.

Player A shouldn't have said anything, he should table his hand or muck it. So just by not following the rules, he's shooting an angle that could potentionally give him the pot.


Can the phrase "You can have it" qualify as a muck/fold?

How about this situation:
Heads up pot, on the turn.

Player A: Bets
Player B: I raise X amount
Player A: "You can have it"

Would this qualify as a fold? or can he just sit there with his cards and wait for player B to muck. And if player B doesn't muck, can player A ship it?
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 07:52 PM
B shouldn't have mucked. He lost all leverage.
I was playing at the Taj. Two players in the hand. The river comes and player A bets $350. Player B says "OK" but shoves nothing. Player A quickly shows his hand and player B mucks. Player A never got the $350 bet.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 07:56 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by PunkFloyd510
Player B is a moron who should have the rest of his money taken as a stupidity tax.
This. Amongst random people, "you can have it" means exactly zero.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 08:01 PM
There is no such thing as the "muck" if a player throws his cards face down toward the dealer they are dead.
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote
03-09-2010 , 08:42 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by banonlinepoker
There is no such thing as the "muck" if a player throws his cards face down toward the dealer they are dead.
Only if facing a bet. Not at showdown
Player says, "You can have it," then demands pot when opponent mucks.  Ruling? Quote

      
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