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question about preflop equity and pot odds question about preflop equity and pot odds

02-15-2011 , 03:24 AM
Say I am getting 1.4-1 to call a preflop allin with A8o. What % equity do I need against my opponents hand range to make a profitable call? Also, how wide a range does he have to be shoving for a call to be correct?

Last edited by JustinZee; 02-15-2011 at 03:32 AM.
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 01:25 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by JustinZee
Say I am getting 1.4-1 to call a preflop allin with A8o. What % equity do I need against my opponents hand range to make a profitable call? Also, how wide a range does he have to be shoving for a call to be correct?
Sorry OP, this is going to sound offensive. But I really am curious as to how you have been a member on these poker forums for nearly 3 years and you don't know how to answer this question. These sorts of problems are so incredibly fundamental to playing successful poker that I am bewildered by the fact that you don't know this (I do mean you personally because I recognize your SN, which means I know you have been around for a while and my memory tells me that you are not a troll and make reasonable posts often).

In any case, if you are get 1.4-1 you can figure out the equity you need to at least break even by converting the odds into a percentage. That is done by take the 1.4 and dividing it by 1.4+1, so 1.4 / 2.4 = .58333 or 58.33%. That is the break even equity. If you have more than that, calling has a positive expectation.

Now that we know the equity needed to be profitable, we can answer your second question by saying, "how wide of a range does villain need to be shoving for A8o to have greater than 58.33% equity?" To answer this, we can go to Pokerstove and enter different hand ranges for villain until our hand of A8o has more than 58.33% equity. This takes some trial and error, but here is if villain shoved with 75% of his hands.

Text results appended to pokerstove.txt

18,616,169,088 games 23.344 secs 797,471,259 games/sec

Board:
Dead:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 57.730% 55.84% 01.89% 10395534180 351641610.00 { A8o }
Hand 1: 42.270% 40.38% 01.89% 7517351688 351641610.00 { 22+, A2s+, K2s+, Q2s+, J2s+, T2s+, 92s+, 83s+, 73s+, 63s+, 52s+, 43s, A2o+, K2o+, Q2o+, J4o+, T6o+, 96o+, 86o+, 75o+, 65o }


We still don't quite have enough equity (57.73%) against a range that includes Q2o, J4o, 96o, any suited Js, etc. Here is 84.6%.

Text results appended to pokerstove.txt

21,164,077,440 games 26.500 secs 798,644,431 games/sec

Board:
Dead:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 58.538% 56.83% 01.70% 12028490292 360439956.00 { A8o }
Hand 1: 41.462% 39.76% 01.70% 8414707236 360439956.00 { 22+, A2s+, K2s+, Q2s+, J2s+, T2s+, 92s+, 82s+, 72s+, 62s+, 52s+, 42s+, 32s, A2o+, K2o+, Q2o+, J2o+, T3o+, 95o+, 85o+, 75o+, 64o+, 54o }

Finally, we get just enough equity to make calling profitable. But only barely. And villain has to be shoving nearly 85% of hands for it to be so. So let's take a look at any two cards (i.e. a random hand):

Text results appended to pokerstove.txt

25,170,868,800 games 30.954 secs 813,170,149 games/sec

Board:
Dead:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 59.873% 58.37% 01.50% 14693282100 377172774.00 { A8o }
Hand 1: 40.127% 38.63% 01.50% 9723241152 377172774.00 { random }

We are about 1.5% above what we need to break even if villain shoves any two cards.

So in short, for a call with A8o to be profitable, villain must be shoving with a wide range. However, keep in mind that in practice villains sometimes overbet shove with wider ranges than they raise with. Meaning that villain might make a normal sized raise with his strongest hands (e.g. AA) hoping for action. But shove with his weakest. In that case, your equity against his range would be stronger than indicated by these numbers here. So of course, the more precise you can be about villain's range the more precise your estimate of your equity will be.
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 05:34 PM
Sorry, may I use this thread to ask a simple question that is probably easy for you guys?

As I see, to convert from odds to percentage we add +1 and then divide by the initial value, right?
What do I need to do to convert percentage to odds?

Sorry again for such a silly question but it's something I can't figure out very easilly...
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 05:40 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Skyon
Sorry, may I use this thread to ask a simple question that is probably easy for you guys?

As I see, to convert from odds to percentage we add +1 and then divide by the initial value, right?
What do I need to do to convert percentage to odds?

Sorry again for such a silly question but it's something I can't figure out very easilly...
Ya. That is sorta right. Embarrassingly I actually screwed up my original response to the OP. The formula is this. If odds are expressed as X:Y, you can convert this to a percentage by taking Y and dividing it by X+Y. In my response I actually divided X by X+Y. The equity needed in the OP is actually 1/2.4 which is .416666 or 41.66%. The rest of what I wrote there (regarding using Pokerstove) still applies.

Here is a range (15.1%) that is close to 41.6%, but still slightly -EV:

Text results appended to pokerstove.txt

3,575,290,752 games 3.173 secs 1,126,785,613 games/sec

Board:
Dead:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 41.023% 39.04% 01.98% 1395850344 70835094.00 { A8o }
Hand 1: 58.977% 57.00% 01.98% 2037770220 70835094.00 { 77+, A7s+, K9s+, QTs+, JTs, ATo+, KTo+, QJo }

This range is +EV though (16.1%):

Text results appended to pokerstove.txt

3,842,410,176 games 3.423 secs 1,122,527,074 games/sec

Board:
Dead:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 41.742% 39.73% 02.01% 1526489964 77406576.00 { A8o }
Hand 1: 58.258% 56.24% 02.01% 2161107060 77406576.00 { 66+, A7s+, A5s, K9s+, Q9s+, JTs, ATo+, KTo+, QJo }

I apologize to the OP. I must not have had my coffee when I wrote that. It is pretty rare (except in ICM bubble situations) that one needs equity as high as I originally posted to call. I'll be off berating myself now.
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 05:49 PM
It's understandable the mistake and sorry for being such stuborn but you still didn't answer my main question xD

How do I convert from percentage to odds?
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 06:22 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Skyon
It's understandable the mistake and sorry for being such stuborn but you still didn't answer my main question xD

How do I convert from percentage to odds?
P : (1-P)
where P is your percentage.

So if win percent is, say, 37% then it's 37:63 in favor or 63:37 against.
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 07:11 PM
Thanks for the detailed reply. I know it seems unbelievable but I didn't know the math off the top of my head. I have read it in books and on the forums from time to time though. No offense taken.
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 07:40 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by RustyBrooks
P : (1-P)
where P is your percentage.

So if win percent is, say, 37% then it's 37:63 in favor or 63:37 against.
Thank you
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 10:24 PM
Visualize it thusly: Percentage represents the ratio of a slice of pie to the whole pie. Odds is the ratio of the REST of the pie to the slice of pie.



Cut a pie in 4 pieces. One piece is 1/4=25% so that is the probability you get that piece (randomly). The odds for getting that piece are 3:1 against.
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-15-2011 , 10:54 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Sherman
Ya. That is sorta right. Embarrassingly I actually screwed up my original response to the OP.
I was getting ready to post a pretty snarky reply based on your initial paragraph in your first post followed by an incorrect formula.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sherman
I apologize to the OP. I must not have had my coffee when I wrote that. It is pretty rare (except in ICM bubble situations) that one needs equity as high as I originally posted to call. I'll be off berating myself now.
In fact, for a cash game (in which you are properly funded) it would be impossible to ever require more than 50% equity in the pot to make a call.
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote
02-16-2011 , 12:50 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nottom
In fact, for a cash game (in which you are properly funded) it would be impossible to ever require more than 50% equity in the pot to make a call.
Actually, this is true only if there are no reverse implied odds or they are not too large. If there are no implied odds but there are reverse implied odds, then

EV = eq(Pot) - (1-eq)(Call + RIO)

where Pot is pot amount amount after opponent has made a bet of Call and RIO is the amount you can lose on the next round or two if opponent hits his winning hand. RIO can be so large that even with eq > 0.5, EV may be negative.

Perhaps not very realistic but I suppose possible.
question about preflop equity and pot odds Quote

      
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