Mildly loose aggro dynamics.

Predraw:

I raise from the btn with 2 small pair.
SB folds
BB 3bets
I CAP

BB draws 3. I draw 1 and fill up.

BB leads out. I raise. BB 3bets.

Can I CAP it??

Would villain b/3b with just AAA? If not this does not seem like a good cap. I feel like pre is not a cap either.

Yes.

Try to put yourself in Villain's shoes. Because of the pre-draw action, he probably thinks you started with two pairs. However, he can't tell for certain, when you draw one card, whether you have a straight draw, a flush draw, two pairs, trips, or none of the above. When you raise his bet, he can't tell if you've made a straight, flush, full house, quads, or none of the above. He might think you missed your draw and are trying to run a bluff with two pairs or a missed straight or flush draw. (It would help to know more about Villain).

Drawing three, he probably made one of the following: quads, full house, trips, two pairs. I would not assume he made quads or a better full house.

Bottom line, without knowing more about Villain, in the game you have described, I'd four bet, and for value. If he did make a full house, yours may be better.

Buzz

I don't like the cap pre.

Post, cap is also probably bad unless he's a spewtard, as he should never be making a flush or straight when he draws three. If he's value raising, most likely he lucked into a boat, and it's almost undoubtedly higher than OPs since OP said he raised originally with two small pair.

My initial feeling was that he's a spewtard for 3-betting oop with just a pair.
OP, did he snap 3-bet or think about it?

dont have any timing tells. Action was pretty fast as was in most hands.

Pre might not be a cap against many, but I was certain of it against him. My open could easily be air, so his 3bet should be fairly light.

@buzz: are you saying that sometimes my 4bet will be a bluff and he is compelled to call worse. In which case he expects me to 4bet bluff which is why he 3bet in the first place. Otherwise he is just asking to be valuecut with the 3bet. I have to wonder if I can even call.

I am claiming a str8 or better or a bluff. And sometimes trips

Here's another way to look at it And no, I wouldn't cap postdraw.

Not exactly. I'm saying if he won't call your four bet without better than aces full, then you should always four bet. I'm saying "by playing so as to force Villain to call, you get paid off when you have a winner. And if he won't call when you have a winner, you steal him blind by betting when you don't have a winner."

If he expects you to 4bet bluff, then don't.

You stated,
"Mildly loose aggro dynamics.
BB draws 3. I draw 1 and fill up.
BB leads out. I raise. BB 3bets."
And you asked,
"Can I CAP it??"

It would be somewhat helpful to know exactly what your full house is, and very helpful to know if this particular opponents would never three bet into a one card draw with less than a high full house, but in the absence of that information and in general, I think, "Sure you can cap it."

If you're up against quads or a better full house you're obviously going to get burned, but I wouldn't think most opponents would need that good a hand to three bet in a game with "mildly loose aggro dynamics" after you drew one card and raised.

I don't understand.

Really? There would be no doubt in my mind about a call. I don't play for more than I can afford to lose and if I lose, shrug, then I lose. I'd have to be "playing scared" to not at least call Villain's three bet in this scenario.

That's not the way I look at it, but I suppose you can look at it that way if you want to define everything trips or better as a non-bluff and any two pairs or less as a bluff.

Buzz

I'm no expert but I see this as an easy cap post-draw if I'm reading it right. Villian's 97/1 to have filled up, I can maybe see me calling the 3-bet if I'm well below the median but I almost always cap here. If villian's fairly loose aggro I can easily see him 3-betting AAA/KKK, he's never putting you on a draw as you capped pre - he thinks you have trips and that he has you crushed! That said if it's low limit who know?

Obviously he might have aces full, but its unlikely! FH's win such a high % always go for maximum value!

Also never cap small 2 pair pre-draw, unless villian's a maniac always 3-betting pair's to defend!

Capping predraw isn't too bad if the BB would 3-bet with KK+ and some semibluffs.

I think you have to ask why the BB is 3-betting postdraw ( why didn't he checkraise after you showed strength? ), so this depends on the opposition - against some opponents, they'll never have less than a boat; against others, they could have just AAA. Capping is unnecessary if the BB was trying to 3-bet bluff.

I think the hand is played perfect and you should cap.

this

i mean

you need to have a rethink if you are scared of a draw 3 hitting a boat when you hit a boat too

poker is a game of calculated risks. i have thus calculated that putting the maximum amount of money in with a full house vs a draw 3 is the optimum play.

Huh. The way I see it, Villain's predraw range might be something like {AA,KK,AK}, so Villain's valuerange to lead postdraw might be KKK+, so when we raise we're claiming str8+, and Villain 3-betting puts our small boat into the bluffcatcher category.

Even if Villain, for whatever weird reason, has KK-up+ as his value-lead range, the proportion of KKK+ is almost big enough for us not valueraise small trips. So basically Villain would have value-lead all his KK-up AA-up (or a larger proprotion than the trips+ in the value-laed range) to make our small boat better than a bluffcatcher after the 3-bet, let alone being a good cap.

PS: I think Villain shouldn't lead any hand postdraw, anyone has a different take on it?

Im assuming villain is not GTO from his play and then I cap this baby