Ok, I played this guy who 3betted me preflop 56% of the time. In the end I feel I played way to tight against him and the first hand is actually the beginning of me adjusting against him. I started flatting more and 4betted here with a hand that palys ok postflop and will fold a lot of his range. I only 4betted him once before where he folded to my 4bet.
So how would you play the flop, or would you 4bet jam preflop or flatting?


[converted_hand][hand_history]Poker Stars, $3.32 Buy-in (20/40 blinds) No Limit Hold'em Tournament, 2 Players
Poker Tools Powered By Holdem Manager - The Ultimate Poker Software Suite. View Hand #21998891

BB: 1,445 (36.1 bb)
Hero (SB): 1,555 (38.9 bb)

Preflop: Hero is SB with K 9
Hero raises to 80, BB raises to 240, Hero raises to 500, BB calls 260

Flop: (1,000) 3 3 J (2 players)
BB bets 945 and is all-in, Hero folds



Second hand was actually played first of those two hands. Villain opened something like 60% of hands, so more on the tighter side and I call. I call the flop, but after looking at it I would probably non allin 3bet here to get him to shove over and then call his 4bet. If he calls I would then shove the turn.

How would you play?



[converted_hand][hand_history]Poker Stars, $3.32 Buy-in (15/30 blinds) No Limit Hold'em Tournament, 2 Players
Poker Tools Powered By Holdem Manager - The Ultimate Poker Software Suite. View Hand #21998881

SB: 1,665 (55.5 bb)
Hero (BB): 1,335 (44.5 bb)

Preflop: Hero is BB with T K
SB raises to 60, Hero calls 30

Flop: (120) J K Q (2 players)
Hero checks, SB bets 120, Hero calls 120

Turn: (360) K (2 players)
Hero checks, SB bets 300, Hero raises to 1,155 and is all-in, SB folds

First hand 4bet jam preflop.
Second hand is fine.

2nd hand he us always folding to raise, calling to induce a river bet is best imo