Quote:
Originally Posted by Jman28
I haven't played a ton of nl lately. Maybe I'll make up a cool hand.
Oooooh actually, I'll tell you about a play I like. I didn't name it but I think I'll call it the 'Root Beer'.
$10k stacks.
Loose semi-aggro decent player opens to $350 from the HJ at 50/100. I make it $1300 from SB with AJss or KK.
Flop T54 two spades. ($2700)
I give him the root beer and bet $650
He usually won't have a hand, but he won't want to fold for $650 into that pot. So he can either return my root beer and make it $2500 (I shove, he folds usually), or he can make a float.
Let's say he chooses to float, which he will fairly often.
Turn Qo or T or 7o, or whatever.
There are two options I like on the turn after I root beer the flop.
One is a check shove. That's kind've the logical one, right? We've forced them to float, so we should let them bluff. But sometimes they check behind, and sometimes they have a weak made hand.
What I like to do more is bet $1500 into the $4000.
What usually happens is that they fold, since they don't have a hand. But a lot of times what happens is they think "hmmmm I can't call this, I have 4 outs/no outs/bottom pair. But why did I float then? To take away this pot. RAISE"
They make it $4k and I shove and they fold. Tada!
It also works nicely with bluffs because you lay yourself a nice price.
Apart from pre-flop, this play seems remarkably similar to one some of my, uhh, 'less orthodox' opponents like making at 50-200nl. I now realize I may have been getting 'Root Beer-ed'.
I was wondering if you could explain the logic behind the flop bet in a bit more detail. (I know some of it will be to do with the games you play in but whatever.) As far as I understand it the point is to get your opponent to put more money in on the flop or subsequent streets with nothing, because he feels he can't fold, and then does something stupid. However, if he has anything other than nothing, this doesn't seem like a great bet with AJss/KK because he is getting huge odds for any straight, flush or even overcard/2 pair draw. Given that he's raised from mp and then called a re-raise, why do you expect him to have nothing enough for this to be a good idea? Or am I missing the point?
Hope that makes sense. And thanks for doing this; as everyone else has already said, this is a monstrous well.