This is a hand I played recently, the results of which I thought were fairly straightforward....but upon further analysis....I'd like feedback from this forum. Thanks in advance.
Live $2/$5 NL. 10-handed.
Hero (~$1300): an unknown compared to the other regs who are chatting with each other quite a bit. Recently won a big pot with 99/full house vs someone's (alleged) missed draw. For those opponents who care, my image is probably TAG-solid.
V (covers Hero): Asian, male, 30s. Talks a lot like LAG who likes action, but this seems more of a show. Preflop limp-calls light, but his open raises seem to represent medium-strong or better hands. Likes to see a lot of flops regardless of who raised, regardless of position. Deceptive with his mix of value betting and slowplaying. Have not seen him show a bluff. We've played together for a little over an hour.
UTG+1 calls. MP (read and stack irrelevant, knows V from previous sessions so they chat quite a bit) raises to $10. Folded to Hero in CO, with Q
Q
. Hero 3-bets to $50. V says to table "now that's a man's kind of raise". All folded to V, who 4-bets to $150. MP tank folds.
This is the first time this session he is limp-reraising. I'm ranging him very narrow. I am not committed, but in position and want to see a flop this deep.
As I am calling, V says "do you ever run it twice?" Honestly this threw me off. I hesitated, then he said "tell me before we see the flop [otherwise we just run it once]". I tell him I usually only run it once.
What's your feedback here? Are you always running twice when offered?
Flop: 7
2
2
V bets $250.
Hero? Is his speech a tell or a reverse tell? How much do we care about what he said?
Last edited by filimaica; 12-15-2013 at 10:22 AM.
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