5/5/10, 8 handed.
Villain (MP, $3000) is a reg, raises somewhat wide preflop, plays pretty standard post flop. I am the straddle ($900) with AQo, have been playing relatively tight so far.

Villain raises to $25, only I call. Flop 66Jr. Check, check. Turn 4r. Villain bets $50, I call. River is a 9. Final board: 66J49 Villain bets $235.

Turn call is ok but not great in my opinion. Board is pretty dry, my hand is likely good. I was planning to call a non-broadway river bet, but he ended up overbetting pretty big. FWIW, villain's standard raise sizes preflop have been $30.

Still not sure what villain had. Anyone been in this kind of spot before? What is villain repping?

I guess all the monsters are in his range. 66 and JJ might check this dry flop and then play catch-up later. 44 and 99 make sense as well. Maybe A6ss? So there's that and then there's air basically, would seem odd to play overpairs/TPTK like this.

The villain is repping better than A high if he "plays pretty standard postflop." You should have folded long before the river.