Quote:
Originally Posted by Javanewt
Sorry, but I'd have to know a whole lot more about V before I called here. He could have JJ/77/55. Heck, he could have 68.
I just don't understand what he'd bluff w/ on the turn after you've shown so much interest in the hand.
I mean, by all means hero call w/ a pair of 5s versus a relative unknown, but I'm folding.
I didn't want to give reads on a player based on generalizing along demographic lines.
My observation is that this type of fellow tends to be trigger-happy when it comes to check-raising thick value, such that I would think he'd be check-raising the flop with any sets or 2P, not that he should have much 2P in his range here, opening and calling a 3B pre.
My thinking in game was that if he's mostly check-raising flop with his sets, and he doesn't have much if any J7, J5, or 75 in his open-call range pre, he shouldn't have much if any 86 in his range, either.
If it earns me any street cred - my fist thought was to just fold. I did tank a good while, thinking about all those hands:
75/86 - is he really opening and calling a 3B pre with those hands? Wouldn't he x/r 75 on the flop, with this wet board texture (two straight draws and a flush draw)? Might he not also x/r 86hh as a bluff? If he just check-calls 86, might it not only be 86hh, given 9h and 4h aren't clean outs?
If he has 86hh, why check again on turn, when I could check back a lot, and draw to a flush, or possibly make a boat with JJ, or shut down with my over-pairs? Why jam rather than just call, possibly letting me get away from my bluffs?
J7s and J5s - card removal limits the combos to two each. Is he really opening all those, and calling my 3B when he's OOP? If so, wouldn't he x/r this wet flop when he makes a sneaky 2P?
JJ - wouldn't he sometimes 4B pre, or x/r this wet flop?
77/55 - wouldn't he x/r this wet flop?
AJ - I could have AA, KK, QQ, and occasionally JJ, as well as 77, and sporadically 55, or if I'm wild, 75 or 86. Why is he blasting off here with TPTK?
A7hh - why raise turn, rather than flop? Why turn 2nd pair with the NFD into a huge bluff?
Bottom line - if he's check-jamming for value/protection, why now, rather than the flop, when the 4d really doesn't change anything, unless I have 86, in which case, he's toast, or he has 86, and I find the fold with any hand that isn't JJ?
Like the thread title says - this line didn't make much sense to me. The only thick value hands I could think of that might be played this way are 86hh and A4hh. Those are the only two hands that might raise pre, call a 3B, check-call a flop, and are materially improved on this turn. I just wasn't very sure if 86hh actually gets opened and calls a 3B pre.