Can someone explain what being polarized is and give some various examples? I would appreciate it because I am sttruggling to understand this concept. Thanks

Well, it is probably easier to explain on preflop game.
Imagine that all your hands can be divided into 3 categories: trash (72o), medium (KQ, AJ, etc) and premiums (JJ-AA, AQ+). Being polarized means that you take medium strength hands out of your range. So, to 3bet polarized range you would use trash and premiums. Contrary, to 3bet depolarized range ou would use medium and premium hands.

And i am assuming that the goal is to have your range be as "unpolarized" as possible to assure that your opponents will make more incorrect decisions against you right?

First, let me say that when we discuss being polarized, we're not talking about opening raises. We're discussing 3bet ranges. Our opening range will be unpolarized.

No, we do not want our 3bet range to be unpolarized against all opponents.

In fact, a lot of theory seems to indicate that against good players, you should 3bet a polarized range.

The decision to 3bet a polarized range is a finding from game theory.

The idea is illustrated with this abstraction:

Imagine a game where hands are ranked from 1-10, 1 being the best, 10 being the worst.
Your opponent raises. How should you respond?
If you reraise with hands 1-4, and call with hands 5-6, and fold the rest, then you get these negative effects:

1) Your opponent knows your raises are very strong (they're unpolarized), and you will get paid less.
2) Your calling hands are very weak, and you will get attacked more.

If you raise hands 1-3, and raise hand number 6, then call with hands 4 you get these effects:

1) Your opponent doesn't know if you raised with your monster or a marginal hand. This means you get some fold equity on your marginal hand, and more calls from your strong hands.

2) Your calling hands are now a little stronger, because your weakest calling hand was substituted with a stronger hand from the raising group.

Let's represent our ranges with the letters R, C, and F (R= raise, C = call, F = fold).

Our first example was RRRRCCFFFF. Our second example was RRRCCRFFFF.
Let's law the hands on top of each other:
RRRRCCFFFF (unpolarized)
RRRCCRFFFF (polarized)

As we can see, the difference relates the bottom of your value (raising range), and the bottom of your calling range.

A NL Holdem Example:

Note: this ranges are not realistic calling / 3betting ranges for any particular form of holdem. They are meant to illustrate the concept of polarization.

Unpolarized example:
Your opponent raises. You decide to play the top 25% of hands. You 3bet hands in the top 10%, and call with the remaining hands.
So, you are 3betting: AA-44,AKs-AJs,KQs-KJs,QJs,JTs,AKo-AJo,KQo (top 10%)
You are calling: 33-22,ATs-A4s,KTs-K9s,QTs-Q9s,J9s,T9s,98s,87s,76s,65s,ATo-A9o,KJo-K9o,QJo-QTo,JTo-J9o,T9o (11-25%)

Polarized example:
Your opponent raises. You decide to play the top 25% of hands. You 3bet hands in the top 7% and from 22-25%. You call the remaining hands (from 7-22%)

3bet: AA-88,AKs-AJs,KQs,QJs,AKo-AQo, 76s,65s,K9o,J9o,T9o (top 7% and the 3% between 22-25%)
Call: Remaining hands (77-22,ATs-A4s,KJs-K9s,QTs-Q9s,JTs-J9s,T9s,98s,87s,AJo-A9o,KJo-KTo,QJo-QTo,JTo) (the range between 7%-22%)

As you can see, the difference between the polarized and unpolarized example is related to what you do with the hands from 7%-10% and 22%-25%:

Instead of calling with: 76s,65s,K9o,J9o,T9o
You are 3betting those hands.
In exchange, you are no longer 3betting with: AJo, KJs, JTs, 77, 66, 55, 44

Practical Considerations
In practice, players who use a polarized 3betting range aren't simply rearranging the absolute value of hand strengths between ranges. They're also keeping in mind what type of hands will play well postflop. Avoiding reverse domination and having your hand disguised are important considerations which aren't accounted for when you shuffle around hands based on absolute value of hand strength. For this reason, a hand like 97s is probably 3bet more often than a hand like K9o, even if both have similar absolute strength.

Another consideration for a polarized 3betting / 4betting range is blockers (holding a hand with any ace reduces the probability your opponent has an ace, making it less likely they can proceed after your 3/4 bet).

There are some really good threads on this already. Polarized means your perceived hand range consists of only very strong and very weak hands. Merged means your perceived hand range consists of many different types of hands. Balanced (which can be Merged or Polarized) means that your actual hand distribution amongst your hand range is equal (or at least as it pertains to pot size).

These concepts are most applicable with preflop 3bets and river bets.

i.e. My opponent bets 100 into a pot of 100 on river. I'm considering calling. For our purposes, assume I know my opponent is Polarized, and would only bet this big with a really strong hand (2pair+) or as a bluff. I have one pair. Since it costs me 100 to win 200, I only need to be correct 1/3 times to break even. (-100, -100, +200). Therefore, my opponent would be Balanced if his bluffing frequency reflected this, and he bluffed 1 time for every 2 times he bet for value. (Note that a Balanced bluffing frequency is dependent on bet size and pot size). If I fold too often, my opponent can bluff more, although he would no longer be balanced, he would be exploitative (which of course leaves him open to exploitation if I notice and start calling lighter). Conversely, he can bluff less than a balanced range if I call too much.

Edit: Very nice posts plancer

Slightly off topic but can someone give me links to good articles on balanced ranges?

A hand i played recently:

Its a 6 max and we are down to 4 players

I have 7d7s and raise on the cutoff. Button, a solid reg calls.

Flop comes K92, two spades, i conti-bet, button calls. Turn is q of spades. Check-check. River is 6 of spades having 4 spades on the board.

I now decide to make a small block/value-bet and the reg raises big.
Now his range is polarized (he either has the ace of spade or air).

Since there is only 1 card in the deck that he'd play that way (as well as bluffs) i called with my small flush. Reg shows QhTh, turning middle pair into a bluff.

These are great explanations!

Being new to the game of poker; how do you determine is someone is polarized or not?

That's a harder question, and I'm interested to hear what others think. At the (small) stakes I play, I don't think many people are worrying about polarizing their 3bet range preflop.

But I do think polarizing situations happen on the river frequently. Not sure how to explain it, but you generally have to be keeping track of what hand ranges are consistent with your opponent's line. A quick example would be a situation where an opponent has called you down to the river after a Q high flop with flush and straight draws. Both turn and river were total bricks, and you check your KQ to your opponent, who fires a nearly pot-sized bet. Generally, this is either an opponent who was slow-playing a big hand from the flop, or who is turning his missed draw into a bluff because that's his only way to win it and you checked to him. That would be polarized, either a big hand or a bluff.

There are many different ways an opponent can be, 'polarized or not'. More and more players are using a balanced strategy preflop/a polarized preflop 3 betting range. Seeing what an opponent does with hands like KJo and ATo preflop is a good indicator of how polarized there PF 3bet range is. Opponents may practice a polarized PF 3 betting range but then not apply the same principles on later streets.

My article about it explains and gives examples:

http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/i...ized-range.php

great article kk, just curious when u say "a range of (QQ+,AK,53s-86s,43s-87s) is preferable" what is the difference between 53s-68s, and 34s-78s. Which hands are included in each because unless i am missing something both have several of the same hands in their right?