If you go to hand range analysis or hand range exploration inside pokerazor and type in a hand distribution it will show you the frequency of which each distribution will hit certain things relative to the the flop. If anyone has pokerazor they know what I am talking about. How can we best incorporate this information in our game? What is the best way to put relative frequencies to work while at the table? Say my distribution has a frequency of hitting top pair 14% of the time and this time i do hit. Well if the board is not draw heavy and the only thing that can beat me is overpair,, sets or two pair would it make sense to calculate the frequencies of all those events together? so if it was all together a 15% chance my opponents distribution will improve the flop with those things that beat me, can you say I am 85% ahead? Because in this situation my distribution will have the besthand 85% of the time since only 15% of the time his distribution will improve the flop better than mines with either a set,two pair, or overpaid. or could you even substitute equity inside probabilty distributions for relative frequencies? So for instance int hsi case could you say (.85)(%100)+(.15)($50) Could you use this way to calculate ev?

So instead of putting my equity or probability of winning in the calculations I put the relative frequency of which my opponents distribution will improve the flop better than my distribution. In this case my distribution did hit top pair, and his distribution needs a set,two pair, or overpair to beat me. So adding up all the frequencies of which that will occur is the frequency of which he will improve the flop better than me? Does this make sense to do this or not?

good ? man. I have been wondering the same thing intuitively. So if i am understanding you correct tell me if this makes sense. So say on razor if you play 15% of hands and your opponent plays 13% of hands. Now with the 13% hand distribution say you hit overpair which has a relative frequency of occuring only 10.5% of the time to any flop. Now your opponent needs two pair, trips, overpairs, or a set(i am leavin draws otu to make it simple) If you type in 15% of hands relative to any flop on razor it says his frequency of which he will hit a set is 2.6%,trips are 1.0%two pair is 1.5% and an overpair of 9%. So all together there is a 14% chance or frequency his distribution will have improved the flop better than yours. It says the highest thign that could be in his distribution will prob be overcards which does not beat you and has a 28.3% frequency of happening relative to any flop. So if I am understanding you correct are you saying since there is only a 14% chance his distribution improved the flop better than your distribution, can you technically say you are 86% ahead? I think I know what you mean and intuivitely when i play with razor i ask myself the same things. Also are you talking about hand distributins relative to ANY flop or did you put in a certain flop inside the calculations? so if i am understanding you correctly, are you saying can we substituve relative frequencies for probabiloty of winnings or equity inside a hand? so can we use relative frequenies to let you know if you are a head or not inside a hand and can you put those calculations inside EV problems?