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Originally Posted by ianlippert
Is their arguement actually that the glut of asian savings lowered the interest rates? Why would it be bad if the market does this as opposed to them printing money?
As for the first question, the argument is something that lots of/some economists believe. Here are the premises:
- There's supply of credit. The traditional argument is that supply of credit funds comes from one of two places: savings and newly printed money.
- There's a demand for that credit
- the market price of that credit (the interest rate) is more or less dependent on these two variables.
So, if supply increases relative to demand, the interest rate will drop.
If demand increases relative to supply, then the price will go up.
Simple, right?
So, the argument is in the early part of this decade, a sudden increase in foreign savings led to an increase in the supply of credit. How do we know it was savings and not money printing that led to the increase in the supply of credit? Answer, per David Henderson, quoted in the WSJ Symposium:
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But how do we know that it was an increase in saving, not an increase in the money supply, that caused interest rates to fall? Look at the money supply.
Since 2001, the annual year-to-year growth rate of MZM (money of zero maturity, which is M2 minus small time deposits plus institutional money market shares) fell from over 20% to nearly 0% by 2006. During that time, M2 (which is M1 plus time deposits) growth fell from over 10% to around 2%, and M1 (which is currency plus demand deposits) growth fell from over 10% to negative rates.
The annual growth rate of the monetary base, the magnitude over which the Fed has the most control, fell from 10% in 2001 to below 5% in 2006. Moreover, nearly all of the growth in the monetary base went into currency, an increasing proportion of which is held abroad.
Moreover, if the Fed was the culprit, why was the housing bubble world-wide? Do Mr. Greenspan's critics seriously contend that the Fed was responsible for high housing prices in, say, Spain?
As for whether or not this is "bad" that the market does it, it may not be. I think the point of Henderson's argument is that you can't blame for the Fed for this, unless you can blame the Fed for the sudden increase foreign savings. Assuming that the empirical reality is that a sudden increase in foreign savings led to low interest rates which fueled the real estate bubble.
I'm not arguing we should accept Henderson's argument that foreign savings really did have a substantial increase prima facie. Neither does Gerald O'Driscoll, Cato Institute fellow and former Federal Reserve Bank of Dallas VP:
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Mr. Greenspan offers conjecture, not evidence, for his claim of a global savings excess. Mr. Taylor has cited evidence from the IMF to the contrary, however. Global savings and investment as a share of world GDP have been declining since the 1970s. The data is in Mr. Taylor's new book, "Getting Off Track."