Quote:
Originally Posted by mjkidd
Your 1% number is only true if you completely ignore any Bayesian analysis, which is very silly imo. No one is a 20 BB loser, so observing a 20 BB lossrate over a 1000 hands and drawing a normal distribution around -20 BB/100 is just ridiculous. To do a reasonable analysis, you'd have to combine the -20 BB/100 distribution with a distribution of possible winrates and lossrates, centered around zero minus the rake.
Your analysis would suggest that it is equally likely that JR has a winrate of -40 BB/100 and 0 BB/100. Which is obviously lol.
So, all this must be wrong then?
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The upper bound of the confidence interval is calculated as
W-Φ-1(p)σ√P
and the lower bound is
W+Φ-1(p)σ√P.
Win rate is simulated by
Wn={Wn-1+ΔP[ W+Φ-1(p)σ/√ΔP ]}/P
while total winnings are
Tn=Tn-1+ΔP[ W+Φ-1(p)σ/√ΔP ].
P is total number of periods, T is current total winnings, W is win rate, σ is the standard deviation of the win rate, ΔP is some fraction of P (ΔP=P/200 is used for convenience in graphing), Φ-1() is the inverse standard normal cumulative distribution, and p is the probability of achieving a particular win rate. The value of p ranges between 0 and 1 and is generated randomly.