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Old 09-18-2020, 10:12 PM   #123
Aaron W.
Carpal \'Tunnel
Join Date: Sep 2002
Posts: 30,097
Re: Something from nothing

Originally Posted by Mightyboosh View Post
The OP is not logically invalid.
MB-C does not follow from MB-P1 and MB-P2. The fact that you have not addressed this even though it is among the first things I said to you (see Post #26) shows just how little you actually care about careful reasoning. All of the bluster shows that you also don't care about intellectual honesty. The combination of those two is why you've failed to make any progress as a thinker over all of these years.

P1) Nothing comes from nothing
P2) There is something
..C1) Therefore there has never been nothing
Suppose at time t = 1 there is something (thus satisfying P2). Call that thing s_1 (something at time 1). That something must have come from something else, which we will call s_0.1 (something at time 0.1). But something must precede that, s_0.01. And something else must precede that, s_0.001. And we can continue this regression infinitely. And yet this construction shows that you are unable to properly conclude that something existed at time t = 0. We can track backwards this way "forever" (whatever that even means) and never get an affirmative statement about s_0's existence.
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