NL5 9Handed
SB: $2.45
UTG: $8.73
LJ: $4.65
Button (Me): $4.93 AA

UTG was sitting on about $12 and kept overplaying TP weak kicker, second pair hands. He was down to $7 at one point then worked it up a little.

UTG limps, LJ limps, I raise on the button w/ Aces to .25, SB calls .23, UTG calls .20, LJ calls .20

FLOP ($1.00) T45
UTG leads out for .20, LJ folds
really strange lead but I usually anticipate being ahead of a guy that will take a Ten wayy too far.
I raise to .80 to ensure this hand continues heads up
SB folds, UTG raises to 2.20

This is where the hand gets a little weird to me. I know that I block top pair top kicker but he can still do this with some weird top pair. My only problem is that having the A and the action prevents him from really having too many bluffs. So if I continue I'm mostly relying on him overplaying some hand like AT or JJ, and obviously I lose to all sets.

I feel like someone could argue for all 3 options here so I'm a bit lost.
Hero??

SPR is 4.5 so I think it's not an auto-stack off with your overpair. Villain's tiny bet to induce so he can subsequently 3bet line is quite strong. Your Ace of diamonds blocks a lot of obvious flush draws. 67 or 32 of diamonds might take this line but so also may 1010, 44, 55 and 45 and there a lot more combos of those then there are of the draws(18). He might take this line with the open ended straight draw which would add in another 6 combos and maybe even Kx suited but that would be really aggressive. This is a shove/fold spot and it's probably a fold with your one pair hand.

If he's kept over-playing TP weaker kicker and second pair hands before, it seems like an obvious shove spot to me.

Raise on the flop should be bigger btw.

Yeah that's fair enough too. I guess I interpreted that over-limping remark as meaning that villain would call three streets or bet three streets with it as opposed to limp-3betting as in this hand.