I have villain tracked at 16/15 with an 8% 3bet after 96 hands so might likely a reg
PokerStars - $0.50 NL - Holdem - 9 players
Hand converted by PokerTracker 4
UTG: $47.48 (VPIP: 16.67, PFR: 8.33, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 12)
UTG+1: $73.14 (VPIP: 13.40, PFR: 10.82, 3Bet Preflop: 1.39, Hands: 194)
MP: $52.03 (VPIP: 18.00, PFR: 16.00, 3Bet Preflop: 8.51, Hands: 102)
MP+1: $18.45 (VPIP: 50.00, PFR: 16.67, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 12)
Hero (MP+2): $50.00
CO: $55.77 (VPIP: 14.46, PFR: 9.64, 3Bet Preflop: 9.52, Hands: 83)
BTN: $91.71 (VPIP: 25.00, PFR: 16.67, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 12)
SB: $65.53 (VPIP: 20.31, PFR: 14.06, 3Bet Preflop: 4.55, Hands: 64)
BB: $57.30 (VPIP: 16.02, PFR: 14.72, 3Bet Preflop: 1.11, Hands: 232)
SB posts SB $0.25, BB posts BB $0.50
Pre Flop: (pot: $0.75) Hero has J
Q
fold,
fold,
MP raises to $1.04,
fold,
Hero calls $1.04,
fold, BTN calls $1.04, SB calls $0.79,
fold
I think there are arguments for 3betting or flatting here. Possibly 3betting is better given that flatting opens up the squeeze opportunity to the players playing behind.
Flop: ($4.66, 4 players) 7
7
K
SB checks, MP checks,
Hero bets $2.50,
fold,
fold, MP calls $2.50
I think this is standard enough. Flop is fairly dry and we block a lot of flush draws so I elect to make the bet slightly smaller
Turn: ($9.66, 2 players) J
MP checks,
Hero bets $6.00,
MP raises to $15.50
I was surprised to see villain check-call preflop. It just seemed like an odd line to take in a multi-way pot. Villain has a 33% c-bet flop stat over 6 hands so perhaps he's more comfortable playing this way. I'm not sure if I should have just taken the free card here on the turn. I've gained some showdown value although I can't see what I'm beating that he has played this way. His turn raise seems very strong. That J doesn't seem like the card that could have helped in that much unless he has JJ or KJ. Perhaps he's slow playing KK but his preflop raise was on the small side. Yeah I was thoroughly confused here. I'm getting really good odds to draw to the flush but is it a reverse-implied odds situation?