I hadn't played a lot of hands against villain (maybe 25 or so) but he was clearly a fish. His VPIP/PFR were about 80/20 (though the sample size was small). He also 3bet quite often, though again, the sample size was small. I have no idea what his limp/raise means for his range.
If the flop wasn't only clubs, it would have been a great flop. How would you have played this hand? I raised the flop since I didn't want a fourth club to appear, but of course if villain already had a flush that's pointless. Should I have made the call? Also, how would you play such a hand against an unknown player? Because it's quite an interesting situation.
PokerStars,
Hold'em No Limit - $0.01/$0.02 - 6 players
Replay this hand on Upswing Poker
UTG: $2.05 (103 bb)
MP: $2.30 (115 bb)
CO (Hero): $1.96 (98 bb)
BU: $2.46 (123 bb)
SB: $2.00 (100 bb)
BB: $2.00 (100 bb)
Pre-Flop: ($0.03) Hero is CO with 6
♦ 6
♥
1 fold, MP calls $0.02,
Hero raises to $0.08,
3 players fold,
MP 3-bets to $0.14,
Hero calls $0.06
Flop: ($0.31) A
♣ 6
♣ J
♣ (2 players)
MP bets $0.14,
Hero raises to $0.43, MP calls $0.29
Turn: ($1.17) 5
♥ (2 players)
MP checks,
Hero bets $0.57,
MP raises to $1.73 (all-in),
Hero calls $0.82 (all-in)