Why 1:1 bluff :value on turn?
Join Date: Aug 2022
Posts: 3
I have been reading through peter clark's 100 hands, and he generally tends towards a 1:1 ratio of bluffs to value on the turn. Why is this the case, if we generally end up with a 2:1 value bluff ratio on the river (assuming pot sized bet)? It doesn't seem to be in the name of balance, since he often makes half pot sized bets on the turn ;(so that we are giving our opponent a good price considering how frequently we are bluffing). Why not just go with a 2:1 ratio on the turn as well?
Join Date: Aug 2021
Posts: 328
Because we need to give up some bluffs on the river. If your turn/river valuebluff ratio is the same, it means you’re always barreling river after betting turn. And villain can exploit you by calling tighter on the turn, and always calling river the times he calls turn.
