What's your guess of just in general 1/2 or 1/3 the open are non premium hands?

If I had to guess I'd say maybe around 30 percent of the time.

What's your guess?

My guess is it depends on what you are calling premiums

Aj suited<

Bump

By opens do you mean limp 1st in or raise 1st in? I'd guess ~50% true opens in these games are actually limps....

22>AJs but not premium..

AJs+, AQo+, JJ+ could be considered premium, this is 4.5% of hands.

For 1st in for raise with this range at 1/2(3) I'd guess this would be done with ~20% of hands. So if Villain opens with top 20% and 4.5% are overall premiums, about 75% of actual opens are not premiums would be my rough assessment..

Ok so a10 off and 99 and up what do you think it is for an open... qk off included as well

Ty for reply to

You talking about late night Vegas games with drunk tourists or morning games at the Orleans with mostly senior citizens ?

Just in general all over.

I would say 60% are non premiums. At least in Texas, Florida, and Nevada.

i play 1/1 in my local and everyone opens shite

I don't think there are any fixed answers to this. It will all depend on the room and players.

Of course... I'm looking for a general idea. I think this can be answered.

Yes, it can be answered with "it depends". It depends upon not only the character of the game (crazy loose or crazy tight) buy also the character of the opening player.

If you are thinking your opponents are playing a perfect GTO strategy thrn your question can be clearly answered. If there is even the slightest variation, then it quickly devolved into it depends.....

What do you even mean by "premium"?

In a LOLive 1-2 or 1-3 game, I am going to have an opening range in any given position. It will be fairly tight in a 9under the gun-handed game, and it will be fairly wide on the button.(*) It whatever position, my range has a bottom and it has a top. I will fold the bottom of my range to three-bets, and continue with my better hands. I have a pretty good idea of which of my continues are going to be calls and which are four-bets.

The notion of "premium hands" is not a useful one. I recommend learning to think in terms of ranges and range construction,

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(*)In a LOLive small-stakes game I am not going to have an opening range in the SB, because the rake makes chopping the blinds the dominating strategy.

I disagree. I feel a general answer can be made.. Of course I know it depends. I'm looking for an answer based on a broad (macro) way 9f l9oking at all these game types included.

You can disagree all you want, but it doesn't change the fact that it really depends upon the game. These are extreme examples, but I have played in games where opening on the button with any two is reasonable. I have also played in games where only opening with the tightest ranges are reasonable.

This is a case where is really does depend upon your opponents.

So far when asked your opponents range, you answered with the vague word "premium". Premium depends upon the game.

I am sorry, but if you are not willing to adapt your opening range to your opponents (i.e. depends), then your opening range should probably be "premium".

I'll go with the ketchup number: 57% the world over. It came to me. If online or shorthanded counts radically more.

Put a better way, if your opponents are playing perfect GTO then the answer is easy. Just define premium and you will get an answer. If theybare not playing perfect GTO then the answer is "it depends" because it depends upon what type of mistakes they are making (too tight?, Too loose?, pre-flop versus post-flop).