Quote:
Originally Posted by oldernotwiser
Good questions -- will answer them with my thought-processes as the hand was progressing.
So far, Sirrybob is the only person who believes it was a mistake to not four-bet preflop.
Because Villain is a cerebral player who plays for a living, I felt that flatting in position would help to disguise the strength of my hand while keeping him OOP for the remainder of the hand (he is good enough to fold JJ and QQ to me for a four-bet preflop and, if he has AA, then a four-bet there does nothing except get us all-in preflop).
If you are 4-betting so tight this player folds QQ/JJ here you should definitely widen your 4 bet range. You can choose how you do that if you want to balance that or just start bluffing more.
Do you think being this tight preflop has implications on how villain sees you post flop? Is he likely to bluff you more because he thinks you're so tight and your range is so predictable he can bluff you more?
The idea that villain knows you flat strong here but flatting disguises your hand seems like a logical contradiction to me. Just pointing it out as obviously you know villain/in game dynamics better than I do.
Quote:
Originally Posted by oldernotwiser
A bet of $125 on the flop was just under half-pot (after the rake and the bad-beat drop, there was $268 in the pot as we headed to the flop). I was not deep enough so that a full-pot bet on the flop did not almost pot-commit me, and a half-pot bet would still signal that my hand was strong enough to be o.k.;
What does villain do with QQ/JJ otf? His he cbetting an over pair here? Is he always checking to you? Is it mixed?
I would get rid of the idea that you "have to committ" after a certain SPR and just think about what is the best betsize for my range and particular hand in this moment. What is my bet trying target in villain's range? What bet size maximizes my overall EV?
Quote:
Originally Posted by oldernotwiser
also, a half-pot bet was not giving him great odds to peel another card in case he was drawing to spades (because he knows I can fold the overpair if the third spade hits the turn... although, if it's the Ace of spades on the turn, I would then be drawing to nut-spades, which might make things interesting).
Do you think this makes villain more likely to flat and bluff you on spade turns instead of bluffing you outright on the flop?
Quote:
Originally Posted by oldernotwiser
The last thing I expected from him was a CRAI, and the fact that that's exactly what he did really sent me into the tank.
Based on your description of villain and dynamic it's hard to tell. On one hand it sounds like villain should just try to get it in vs you when he's ahead and not bluff you very much because your range is so strong.
On the other hand some of the other information you provided would lead me to believe that you fold more regularly than your tight/strong range should fold and maybe villain thinks this translate to post flop as well.
Quote:
Originally Posted by oldernotwiser
As mentioned, he knows I'm never cold-calling his three-bet preflop without a real hand, and so he also knows that unless I called him at the bottom end of my range, that flop did not hurt me (and maybe even helped if I have TT). Therefore, I believed that unless he already had me beaten, then the best he really should be able to do is check-call that flop because he knows that if I believe I am ahead, I am definitely willing to stack-off in that spot; given our lengthy history of having played against each other, my mind told me that the only way he check-raises that hard there is if he believes he is winning and wants to turn his hand into a bluff.
What good does c/calling JJ do for him? Are you ever betting 99-88 there?