Quote:
Originally Posted by noidea555
Question 2:
If 4 white, 6 red, 9 blue, and 6 black marbles are arranged at random, what is the probability that every black marble is adjacent to at least one other black marble?
for question 2, since every blue marble is indistinguishable from every blue marble, etc... the number of ways to arrange that many marbles is (4+6+9+6)!/4!6!9!6! = 3435630198000 = a. If every black marble has to be adjacent to at least one other black marble, we can group two black marbles together and count them as one, so now we have 3 groups of black marbles. The total number of ways to arrange this is (4+6+9+3)!/4!6!9!3! = 29875045200 = b. The answer to this question is now b/a = 0.00869565217. Is this right?
Your solution for "a" is totally correct. And while b would seem the right way to work it at first, it would NOT take into account black balls arranged in 2 groups of 3, so something is missing. It does, however, take into account balls in one group of 6, the 4-2 groups, and the 2-2-2 groups. So we just need to add on on 3-3 groups. (Note: The error in your equation for problem 1 was that you assumed that the groups of 2 and 3 were INdistinguishable, which they are not since you can distinguish a group of 2 objects from 3. In this case, we don't have to worry about that since we have an even number of objects and we can group them nicely).
You might immediately say, "Let's just use (4+6+9+2)!/4!6!9!2!" However, we do NOT want to overcount the one group of 6 since we already accounted for that. So there are two solutions from here -- either subtract the overcounted set (4+6+9+1)!/4!6!9!1! or set up the problem like we did in problem 1, choosing a red ball OR blue OR white to be the middle piece. Clearly the subtraction is easier.
In summary, a is correct, but b= (4+6+9+3)!/4!6!9!3!+(4+6+9+2)!/4!6!9!2!-(4+6+9+1)!/4!6!9!1!
I just noticed you are from the Univ. of Waterloo. I applied there for graduate study. Hope I get to see you there!
Last edited by Thraddash; 01-20-2010 at 01:21 AM.