hero, in this hand, as it is posted, is calling ~35% of his stack when he calls the 4-bet and he leaves about 56% of his starting stack behind. and the SPR of the flop is ~.62
172/493 = ~.35
573 - 252 = 321, 321/573= ~.56
321/516 = ~.62
so discussion about cold calling ~50% of one's stack seems odd.
if it can be explained by something particular to the term 'cold call' rather than just 'call' i'd be grateful if someone shared that explanation with me.
if we want the 172k call to be 50% of his stack with the same prior actions then his stack would need to be 344K which would make the starting effective stack like 424K
the shallower effective starting stacks would mean calling the 4bet leaves just about 41% of his starting stack behind and the SPR of the flop is .333
the smaller SPR reduces the effectiveness of improving your situation by making correct flop-folding decisions.
and of course having a smaller amount behind to shove means you need less equity vs. a calling range for the shove to be +ev. the breakeven equity becomes 40% 344/860 =.4
Last edited by ngFTW; 09-04-2018 at 05:17 PM.