Two Plus Two Publishing LLC
Two Plus Two Publishing LLC
 

Go Back   Two Plus Two Poker Forums > >

Notices

Two Plus Two Magazine Forum Articles and features about poker and gambling in general.

Reply
 
Thread Tools Display Modes
Old 02-09-2012, 12:13 PM   #1
cubaman
newbie
 
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: mainz
Posts: 36
Question Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem

here is the article:
http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/i...em-problem.php


$
Quote:
Let’s see how various bet sizes do. How about $1,010? That forces him to fold his straight draw, but costs you all that money when he has his hand. Your expected value is 80 percent of $1,000 minus 20 percent of 2,010. That’s $598 which is worse than if you had checked.
The way Sklansky is getting his result -> i can´t understand.

Why is he taking 20% of 2010$ and not 20% of 1010$ (the betsize / the "risk")?
By the way: when you take 20% of 2010$, which is 402$, and then substract that fom (80%*1000=)800$ you get 398$, not 598$??

I would calculate:
80% from 1000$ (Pot) = 800$
minus
20% from 1010$ (Bet) = 202$
which gives me an EV of 598$

Can someone check this and tell me what´s right? Maybe he just misstyped the number? He confused me :d

Thanks a lot

Last edited by cubaman; 02-09-2012 at 12:37 PM.
cubaman is offline   Reply With Quote
Old 02-10-2012, 07:23 AM   #2
u cnat spel
old hand
 
u cnat spel's Avatar
 
Join Date: Jul 2009
Posts: 1,964
Re: Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem

You are correct. Dead money in the pot does not belong to us.
u cnat spel is offline   Reply With Quote
Old 02-14-2012, 11:15 PM   #3
au4all
veteran
 
Join Date: Apr 2011
Posts: 2,864
Re: Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem

Quote:
Originally Posted by cubaman View Post
here is the article:
http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/i...em-problem.php


$

The way Sklansky is getting his result -> i can´t understand.

Why is he taking 20% of 2010$ and not 20% of 1010$ (the betsize / the "risk")?
By the way: when you take 20% of 2010$, which is 402$, and then substract that fom (80%*1000=)800$ you get 398$, not 598$??

I would calculate:
80% from 1000$ (Pot) = 800$
minus
20% from 1010$ (Bet) = 202$
which gives me an EV of 598$

Can someone check this and tell me what´s right? Maybe he just misstyped the number? He confused me :d

Thanks a lot
You're both coming up with the same answer (598). I agree David's explanation is a little awkward.

Last edited by au4all; 02-14-2012 at 11:22 PM.
au4all is offline   Reply With Quote
Old 02-28-2012, 05:03 PM   #4
Redred
banned
 
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Canada, NB
Posts: 62
Re: Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem

The mistake is in the following part;

"Let’s see how various bet sizes do. How about $1,010? That forces him to fold his straight draw, but costs you all that money when he has his hand. Your expected value is 80 percent of $1,000 minus 20 percent of 2,010. That’s $598 which is worse than if you had checked."

The lost should be 20 percent of 1010, which is the correct way to calculate EV.
Redred is offline   Reply With Quote
Old 03-02-2012, 05:19 AM   #5
R Gibert
adept
 
Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 934
Re: Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem

Quote:
Originally Posted by cubaman View Post
here is the article:
http://www.twoplustwo.com/magazine/i...em-problem.php


$

The way Sklansky is getting his result -> i can´t understand.

Why is he taking 20% of 2010$ and not 20% of 1010$ (the betsize / the "risk")?
By the way: when you take 20% of 2010$, which is 402$, and then substract that fom (80%*1000=)800$ you get 398$, not 598$??

I would calculate:
80% from 1000$ (Pot) = 800$
minus
20% from 1010$ (Bet) = 202$
which gives me an EV of 598$

Can someone check this and tell me what´s right? Maybe he just misstyped the number? He confused me :d

Thanks a lot
You're right. He made a mistake. I'll give 3 ways of computing the EV:
  1. .80*1000 - .20*1010 = 598
  2. .80*2010 - 1010 = 598
  3. 1000 - .20*2010 = 598
It appears DS got #1 mixed up with #3 with his:
.80*1000 - .20*2010 = 398
He actually wrote the right answer 598 using an incorrect method that should have yielded the incorrect 398.
R Gibert is offline   Reply With Quote
Old 04-08-2012, 02:52 AM   #6
All-inMcLovin
Carpal \'Tunnel
 
All-inMcLovin's Avatar
 
Join Date: Oct 2007
Location: FLOP SO HARD POPOVICH WANNA SIGN ME
Posts: 25,392
Re: Math problem from: Classic Article: No Limit Hold 'em Problem

Does OP win a prize now?

Nice find!
All-inMcLovin is offline   Reply With Quote

Reply
      

Thread Tools
Display Modes

Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off


Forum Jump


All times are GMT -4. The time now is 08:58 AM.


Powered by vBulletin®
Copyright ©2000 - 2018, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.
Copyright © 2008-2017, Two Plus Two Interactive
 
 
Poker Players - Streaming Live Online