Quote:
Originally Posted by LargeLouster
Odds of KK are 1/(52*51/2/6/8)=1/27.625. Odds of AQ are 1/(50*49/2/6/7)=29.16666667. Since u don't seem concerned with the order of the 1st flop odds are 1/(3/47*2/46*1/45)=1/56,752.5. Odds of turn card are 1/(1/44)=44.
Product is 2,011,994,359.375
Odds of guy who had KK getting AQ on 2nd hand are same as odds of his KK on 1st hand cuz ur just figuring odds of two cards of a certain rank. Same applies to odds of guy who got AQ getting KK on 2nd hand. The flop odds change cuz u said they have to come in a specific order and become 1/(1/48*1/47*1/46)=1/97,290. Turn odds remain the same since there is still only one card that meets ur requirements and are 1/(1/4)=45
Product is 3,449,133,187.50
So, the overall odds are 1/2,011,994,359.60494*1/3,449,133,187.50=1/6,939,636,518,776,210,000. I'll be honest, I'm not 100% certain this is right cuz it's easy to make an error in this many calculations, but for sure it's greater than 1,000:1 !
Regards, LargeLouster
My girldfriend said not to bother doing this cuz, as she put it, "no one cares about ur dumbass math." I gotta admit, in her own way, she is profound. But, Im gonna do it anyway. The correct answer is:
Odds of KK are 1/(52*51/2/6/8)=1/27.625. Odds of AQ are 1/(50*49/2/6/7)=1/29.166666666667. Since u don't seem concerned with the order of the 1st flop, odds are 1/(3/48*2/47*1/46=17,296.00. Odds of turn card are 1/(1/45)=45.
Product is 1/627,115,125
Odds of guy who had KK getting AQ on 2nd hand are same as odds of his KK on 1st hand cuz ur just figuring odds of two cards of a certain rank. Same applies to odds of guy who got AQ getting KK on 2nd hand. The flop odds change cuz u said they have to come in a specific order and become 1/(1/48*1/47*1/46)=103,776.00. Turn odds remain the same since there is still only one card that meets ur requirements and are 1/(1/45)=45.
Product is 1/3,762,690,750.
So, the
correct overall odds are (i hope) 1/627,115,125*1/3,762,690,750=1/2,359,640,280,022,590,000.