Quote:
Originally Posted by Rococo
DVaut,
Post above is very good and worth discussing. Although you probably would agree that it does not reflect the reasoning of most who self-identify as social conservatives.
I think the phenomenon you describe above is also influenced by the pervasiveness of social media, consumer electronics, and geographic mobility. As a society, we largely have exchanged a more narrow, but deeper, set of social connections for a much larger, but more shallow, set of social connections.
It might be true but I don't love this explanation. I think it is essentially a post hoc ergo propter hoc. I think both phenomenon (institutional degradation, technological gains) are symptomatic of finance capital but humans understandably conflate the two because one sort of followed the other; that is, technology gains have been huge because incredible amounts of capital driven into technology firms and then they spit out ever new innovations, and then what follows are a bunch of big cultural changes and institutional transitions. But I maintain the real, genuine causative agent is changes in our economic system, policy changes around how we accumulate capital, what we do with surplus, etc.
Without getting into tedious 15th/16th century European history but historians still have functionally the same debate: did the printing press cause the Reformation or were both the products of an earlier causative factor. I think the proper (admittedly leftist) reading is that both were in fact caused by the dawning of modern capitalism, itself in its early infancy at the time. That is, study Gutenberg and other inventors all clustered around solving printing and movable type and you'll recognize that demand for books was entirely market driven, not the other way around. That is, the printing press was the result of market demands for books, it didn't create the demand itself. Why the demand for books? Rising literacy among the middle class and students and industry. Why all that? Why the existence of students and universities at all? Why is there a middle class? Because at the same time, you're seeing innovations in banking, insurance, accounting, the emergency of double-entry book keeping, urbanization, the height of the enclosure movement sending labor into cities, etc. It's really the start of early mercantilism and early capitalism and the end of feudalism. All of that is producing the need for technical experts, specialists, a labor market -- and the resulting demand for literate workers and books. Boom, the printing press.
Then over the next 50 years or so you start to see huge shifts in religious thought and essentially a revolution of organized religion in Europe culminating in the Reformation because of a lot of the same factors: rising literacy rates, growing cities, more capital.
Simplified story, sure, obviously, it's a message board. But I think it's ultimately true. But you have a historical antecedent for the process write large: change in economic system and wholesale systemic re-thinking about production and trade --> technological changes --> mass migration, cultural, religious, institutional shifts. Lots of people go back to the technological shifts and stop. But the true causative factor is before.
I think we're essentially in the same sort of transitory period now wherein free market capitalism and financilization of the markets caused big spikes in capital pools and the size of markets, lots of capital flow to tech companies, and they see big revolutions first (computing, networking, the internet, labor changes, commerce changes) and THEN a bunch of cultural shifts, global migration, the reorganization of institutions -- and the resultant temptation to assume the cause is technology when the true cause is what how we produce stuff and what we do with the surpluses we produce (e.g., invest in tech, give it back to zillionaires). And from there, you get a bunch of factors that inevitably disrupt institutions (the political system, organized religions, etc.)
Last edited by DVaut1; 10-18-2018 at 12:16 PM.