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Originally Posted by Zygote
the market maker benefits obviously because they are the only ones who can deal directly with the fed. that is an obvious benefit.
And the grocery stores I go to are the only grocery stores who can directly deal with me. Neither relationship is any sort of permanent subsidy - I go to those grocery stores because they provide me with the most convenient access to the market for groceries. The Fed goes to those dealers they provide the Fed with the most conveient access to the market for treasuries. No one is excluded from starting such a business, any more than anyone is excluded from starting a grocery store next to where I live. If you have a good enough business, you become a primary dealer.
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then, even if someone else does take advantage of it, the money they receive from the fed is still accessible by the bank because the money is deposited in the bank. you cant get away from the banks benefiting for the most part. this access for the bank is a benefit in two ways. for one, the receiving bank benefits because their direct ability to expand rises. then the other banks benefit because the overnight rates they depend so much on end up being cheaper due the increase supply of loanable funds.
Even if we accept your strange logic that banks as a whole have some supernatural ability to access "new money" regardless of who has it, then banks suffer just as much, because they must already control the "rest of the money" which has lost value proportionally. Either way, the above barely even parses.
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also we know dealers benefit strictly by their willingness to be involved in the process
So I guess everyone benefits from taxation - they are willingly involved in the process much the same way that most people willingly pay taxes or shop at Walmart.
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the fact that new money benefits its early receivers. this is so obviously true i cant believe we're arguing it.
So random sellers of the treasury benefit from monetary expansion. Again, we have established that sellers of treasuries are the early receivers of this great new money. So why not join the party?
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also what would be the effect to current banks if tomorrow the fed said they are stopping liquidity support to all banks and giving it rather to registered gambling houses only?
The entire economy would suffer, but effects would be fairly random. You're randomly mixing ideas though - the fed's liquidity support and the fed's use of open market operations to set interest rates are not related, except in some fairly technical sense that you don't understand and I won't bother to explain here. I undersatnd that you're largely playing a word-association game, but it wasn't until 2008 that primary dealers received any liquidity support from the Fed. Furthermore, liquidity support from the Fed isn't some kind of subsidy - it's largely a credit-based loan program available to institutions that abide by the Fed's rules. Registered gambling houses would have neither the collateral, nor the credit to access any of this at a favorable rate, even if the program was open exclusively to them.
In short, your entire scenario is predicated on a false premise - there's no arbitrary distinction between "bank" and "registered gambling house" from the Fed's perspective. Pretty much anyone who's willing to abide by the Fed's rules already has access to the Fed's liquidity facilities. Anyone can organize their business to be a bank-holding company.
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lets talk about speculation in that everyone else in the rest of the economy can anticipate the new money so will force the prices of the items desired by the new money receiver to rise before he can spend it. due to human action, there is obviously no way to be certain here. but if you can predict where his demands will lay, you can invest whatever resources you have trying to take advantage. There are cases where everyone elses resources are limited however, and cannot take full advantage, and if they know exactly where he will go (something that is not the case ever).
Again, to the extent that you can't predict how this new money will shape prices in the future, you similarly don't know who will benefit. Capital markets are structured so that you can bet on things like this. You can even bet on the general price level.
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If the money supply expands 1000 and the initial money supply was 100, even if society diverted all their money to the resource they thought the expander would buy, they cannot bring the price up high enough to take away his benefit of an inflated balance
What? This is exactly what happens during hyperinflation. Society would anticipate and move prices well ahead of actual increase in money supply.
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(assuming no credit is used).
If you assume away aspects of reality, don't be surprised when you get conclusions that are not relevant in reality.
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Since the expander is really always getting something for nothing, he wins no matter how high the price assuming he can still outbid for something.
So sell your treasuries and get fresh new money.
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Originally Posted by Zygote
there is a constraint in spending power and that is m0.
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aggregate transactions are one way of looking at spending.
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Originally Posted by Zygote
i never said anything about aggregate transactions having any problem being larger than the quantity of money available.
So, m0 is some sort of constraint in spending power and aggregate transactions are one way of looking at spending and it can be arbitrarily bigger than m0. So exactly what kind of constraint is m0? What does it constrain, how does it constrain and what does it constrain to?
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im not using your idea. there a similar features to the way you see it and i see it. i know many others who see it similarly too, whose views on this likely predate your existence. the IP is really a stupid place to venture especially because they idea has an essence, and was discovered not invented.
It's not about IP - you couldn't follow basic algebra or distinguish between real and nominal values (90% of your objections were due to those errors), so there was no danger of you replicating any useful aspect of the model - I'm merely saying, given my familiarity with your history of posts on monetary policy, that the probable origin of that particular method of analysis is actually my model. You had a lot of trouble understanding why I formulated a relationship between money supply and nominal value of total amount of stuff in an economy, causing some oscillation between different modes of confusion. For instance,
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Originally Posted by Zygote
PB, i think i have found a glaring error your interpretation. There is no such exchange as all the goods for money. Money is only demanded to extend barter conditions between varying goods and service exchanges. There is no relation of all the money to all the goods, since there is no case where one would give up all the goods to get all the money because they might as well keep the goods from the start. Money is not demanded as an end, its demanded as a medium. All goods would never go on sale for all the money because money demand depends on one's willingness to hold it, and one is only willing to hold it for the services money renders. Money does not provide any services for those who acquire all the goods for all the money.
Btw, if anyone else is still reading this, that other thread is far more entertaining, interesting and illuminating:
http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/11...regime-397397/
Bonus points to anyone finding my statements in that thread that I now disagree with!
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also, again, i never said prices cannot adjust before actual growth in m0. they just cant fully adjust and to adjust they leave gaping holes (to speculate on where one thinks new money will go one must make choices and diversions to engage in this speculation).
But in the aggregate on average, do they tend to under-adjust? If they don't, then spenders of the new money don't get any benefit from purchasing in under-adjusted markets. If they do, then you can make money by speculating on aggregate prices. In short, the opportunity to profit from access to "new money" is always available via capital markets to everyone.